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Exam Code: 9A0-081
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe LiveCycle ES Application Developer Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 You want to process (i.e. extract data) a policy protected PDF document that is on a server. Which
operation is necessary prior to processing the PDF document?
A.Revoke license
B.Remove Policy Security
C.Unlock Policy Protected PDF
D.Set Value that writes the document into a temporary variable
Answer:C

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NO.2 With which does the workspace-theme.swf need to be directly packaged?
A.workpace-runtime.swc
B.adobe-livecycle-jboss.ear
C.adobe-workspace-client.ear
D.adobe-workspace-client.war
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which two permissions does a document publisher have and a regular policy member does NOT have?
(Choose two.)
A.extract data
B.switch policy
C.delete document
D.revoke document
E.document modify
F.filling in form fields and signing
Answer:B D

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NO.4 A user is listed as a document publisher in a policy set. Which task can they complete?
A.Create a policy within the policy set.
B.Apply any policy to any PDF document.
C.Apply a policy to a PDF document they have created.
D.Apply any policy from the policy set to any PDF document.
Answer:D

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NO.5 What does the package lc.domain contain?
A.The interfaces that are used to communicate with LiveCycle ES server.
B.The classes that are used to communicate with LiveCycle ES server directly.
C.The classes that encapsulate LiveCycle ES business concepts such as tasks, endpoints, queues.
D.The interfaces that are used to expose the LiveCycle ES business concepts such as tasks, endpoint,
queues.
Answer:D

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NO.6 Which type of key is used by Rights Management to encrypt a document?
A.A 256 bit AES Symmetric key.
B.A 128 bit AES Symmetric key.
C.A 128 bit AES Asymmetric key.
D.The private key portion of a 1024 bit Asymmetric key pair.
Answer:B

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NO.7 You are creating a policy set. At which level can you specify Visible Users and Groups?
A.group
B.domain
C.individual user
D.organizational unit
Answer:B

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NO.8 Assuming they have the switch policy permission, which two users can revoke a PDF document?
(Choose two.)
A.document recipient
B.document publisher
C.document distributor
D.policy set coordinator
Answer:B D

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NO.9 Which statement about the users specified in the Visible Users and Groups category is true?
A.They can create policies in the policy set.
B.They can be included as principals in a policy.
C.They can apply a policy from the policy set to a PDF.
D.They can open a PDF document that has been protected with a policy from the policy set.
Answer:B

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NO.10 You are customizing styles by using the lc.css style sheet. What is represented by any style that is in
lower case beginning with a dot (for example, .loginSplash)?
A.The Selector.
B.A global style.
C.A Component (Class).
D.A stylename property of a Component.
Answer:D

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Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe Acrobat Professional 6.0 Product)
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Total Q&A: 99 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which file format is supported when you create an Adobe PDF document by choosing Create PDF
> From Multiple Files?
A. AI
B. TIFF
C. PSD
D. WPD
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which application supports one-button creation of Adobe PDF documents?
A. Microsoft Access
B. Netscape Navigator
C. Corel Word Perfect
D. Microsoft Internet Explorer
Answer: D

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NO.3 When you create a form in Adobe Acrobat Professional, what other technology can be utilized to
further enhance the functionality of the fields?
A. XML
B. HTML
C. VBScript
D. JavaScript
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which command should you use to zoom to see all edges of an Adobe PDF document?
A. View > Fit Width
B. View > Fit Page
C. View > Fit Visible
D. View > Actual Size
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which Windows-based application supports one-button creation of an Adobe PDF document from
the desktop?
A. Corel Draw
B. Adobe Premiere
C. Adobe Photoshop
D. Autodesk AutoCAD
Answer: D

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NO.6 What provides Adobe applications with a common framework that standardizes the creation,
processing, and interchange of document metadata across publishing workflows?
A. XMP
B. XML
C. XFDF
D. PDF/X
Answer: A

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NO.7 You want to create an Adobe PDF document from a Microsoft Excel workbook. The workbook has
several worksheets and chart sheets. Which command should you choose in Excel to create a
single PDF document that contains all of the worksheets and chart sheets?
A. File > Properties
B. File > Page Setup
C. Adobe PDF > Convert to Adobe PDF
D. Adobe PDF > Convert Entire Workbook
E. Adobe PDF > Change Conversion Settings
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which Portable Document Format Exchange standard can the Acrobat preflight functionality use
(without using additional plugins) to validate an Adobe PDF document?
A. PDF/a
B. PDF/x-1
C. PDF/x-2
D. PDF/x-1a
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which file format does Adobe Acrobat use to exchange metadata?
A. XMP
B. HTML
C. JavaScript
D. Rich Text Format
Answer: A

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NO.10 .You want to create a batch sequence that allows you to put keywords into a set of PDF
documents. Which sequence command should you choose?
A. Description
B. Open Options
C. Make Accessible
D. Accessibility Checker
Answer: A

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NO.11 .You are printing a complex Adobe PDF document to a PostScript laser printer. You want to
minimize the amount of printer memory required to print the file. What should you do?
A. select Print As Image from the Advanced Print Setup dialog box
B. choose Send at Start from the Font and Resource Policy pop-up menu in the PostScript
Options panel of the Advanced Print Setup dialog box
C. select Emit PS form Objects from the PostScript Options panel of the Advanced Print Setup
dialog box
D. choose Send for Each Page from the Font and Resource Policy pop-up menu in the PostScript
Options panel of the Advanced Print Setup dialog box
Answer: D

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NO.12 When assigning an action to a form field, what triggers an On Mouse-up action?
A. tabbing out of the field
B. rolling on top of the field
C. clicking the mouse button in the field
D. clicking the mouse button and letting go in the field
Answer: D

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NO.13 You are creating an Adobe PDF document from a PowerPoint presentation. Which functionality in
the PowerPoint presentation is automatically included in the PDF document?
A. macros
B. text outlines
C. slide timings
D. action buttons
Answer: D

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NO.14 In a Creative Professional workflow, the ISO standard PDF/X is used _____.
A. as a standard for archiving metadata
B. as an Internet standard for sending fax documents
C. for the creation of PDF documents with multimedia content
D. to assure that prepress information is correctly represented in a PDF document
Answer: D

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NO.15 From which two applications can Adobe PDF documents be created and maintain layers?
(Choose two.)
A. CorelDRAW!
B. Microsoft Visio
C. AdobeInDesign
D. Autodesk AutoCAD
E. QuarkXPress 5.0 and above
Answer: B,D

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NO.16 Which form field type supports a date format?
A. button
B. list box
C. text field
D. combo box
Answer: C

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NO.17 Why would you create a form in Adobe Acrobat instead of HTML?
A. The form can be filled out in a Web browser.
B. JavaScript can be used to perform calculations.
C. The data collected by the form can be electronically submitted.
D. The electronic version of the form can be identical to the printed version.
Answer: D

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NO.18 You are creating an Adobe PDF document from a Microsoft Word document. Users will print the
PDF document on laser and ink jet printers. You want to maintain print quality while minimizing the
file size. From Word, you choose Adobe PDF > Change Conversion Settings. Which option should
you choose from the Conversion Settings pull-down menu in the PDFMaker Settings panel?
A. Standard
B. High Quality
C. Press Quality
D. Smallest File Size
Answer: A

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NO.19 You want to create a single Adobe PDF document from documents that were created in multiple
applications. In Acrobat, you choose File > Create PDF > From Multiple Files. One of the selected
files is not converted. What could possibly cause this to happen?
A. The file is open in another application.
B. The file you are incorporating is already a PDF document.
C. The file name is too long. It must be 32 characters or less.
D. You are using a PC and the file was originally created on a Macintosh.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which product can be used to allow business users to create and save Adobe PDF documents
containing interactive forms?
A. Adobe Illustrator
B. Adobe Acrobat Elements
C. Adobe Acrobat 6.0 Standard
D. Adobe Acrobat 6.0 Professional
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 9A0-154
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe Premiere Pro CS5 ACE Exam)
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Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Mark works as a Premiere Pro editor for company Inc. He wants to map the source audio channels so
that one or more groups of six channels are placed into separate 5.1 surround audio tracks. Which of the
following options will Mark choose to accomplish the task?
A. Choose the 5.1 option.
B. Choose the Set Linear Key-frame Thinning option.
C. Choose the Set Minimum Time Interval Thinning option.
D. Choose the Set the 5.1 Mixdown Type option.
Answer: A

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NO.2 In Timebase of the General tab, which option (frames/ second) will a user choose to edit PAL (European
standard) and SECAM video.?
A. 29.97
B. 28
C. 25
D. 24
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following steps will you take to create a template from an open title? Each correct answer
represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Click the triangle next to a category name to expand it.
B. With a title open, click the Templates button.
C. Enter a name for the title templatethen click the OK button.
D. Click the Templates menu button. Choose Import Current Title As Template.
Answer: BCD

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NO.4 Choose and reorder the correct steps to apply effects to clips.
Answer:

NO.5 Which of the following tools is used to simultaneously change the In and Out points of a clip in a
Timeline, while keeping the time span between them constant?
A. Rolling Edit
B. Ripple Edit
C. Track Selection
D. Slip
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is used to shorten a clip in a Timeline by speeding up its playback, or to lengthen
it by slowing it down?
A. Rate Stretch
B. Ripple Edit
C. Rolling Edit
D. Razor
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which option of batch capturing will you choose to capture frames beyond the In and Out points
identified for each clip in the batch?
A. Batch Capture
B. Capture panel
C. Capture With Handles
D. Override Capture Settings
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following options of the General tab is used to specify the dimensions, in pixels, for
frames while playing back sequences?
A. Fields
B. Pixel Aspect Ratio
C. Display Format (Audio)
D. Frame Size
Answer: D

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NO.9 Mark works as a Premiere Pro editor for company Inc. He is using time remapping. He has adjusted the
speed of an instance of a clip in the Timeline. This clip contains audio also. What will be the effect on the
audio of the clip while adjusting its speed by time remapping?
A. The audio speed will be synchronized with the clip speed.
B. The audio will not play.
C. The audio will be locked automatically.
D. The audio speed will remain at 100% speed.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
___________________is a standalone encoding application employed by programs, such as Premiere
Pro, After Effects, SoundboothEncore.
Answer: Adobe Media Encoder

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NO.11 Which of the following Fast Color Corrector effects is used to display the left or upper part of the image
as the corrected view and the right or lower part of the image as the uncorrected view?
A. Show Split View
B. Layout
C. White Balance
D. Split View Percent
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following options of the Title Properties panel is used to specify the amount of space
between lines of type?
A. Aspect
B. Slant
C. Tracking
D. Leading
Answer: D

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NO.13 Mark works as a Premiere Pro editor for company Inc. He is optimizing the scratch disk performance.
Which of the following steps will Mark take if he has only one hard disk on his computer?
A. Leave all scratch disk options at their default settings.
B. Defragment the hard disk.
C. Create one more drive for Premiere Pro projects.
D. Create a separate folder for each file type of the project.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following file formats uses the .mov extension?
A. QuickTime
B. MP3
C. P2 Movie
D. JPEG
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following options is used to switch the selected object with the object directly in front of it
while changing the stacking order of objects in titles?
A. Send To Back
B. Bring Forward
C. Bring To Front
D. Send Backward
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following steps will you take to specify the tracks to change with Sync Lock? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Choose an option from the Placement menu for each type of track added.
B. Shift-click the Toggle Sync Lock box at the head of any track of that type.
C. Choose an option from the Track Type menu for audio and audio submix tracks.
D. Click the Toggle Sync Lock box at the head of each video and audio track that you want to be affected
by the edit.
Answer: BD

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NO.17 Which of the following options in device control shows the number of frames to adjust the timecode
embedded in the captured video?
A. Preroll
B. Remained frames
C. Uncaptured roll
D. Timecode Offset
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following is used to specify how much before the In point Adobe Premiere Pro starts
playing the tape before capture?
A. Offline
B. Preroll Time
C. Detected
D. Timecode Offset
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following are the view area options available on the panel menu of the Export Settings
viewing area? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Chronic Pixel Preview
B. 1:1 Pixel Preview
C. SVG output Preview
D. Aspect Ratio Corrected Preview
Answer: BD

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NO.20 In which of the following locations are presets located? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. DVCPROHD > 720p
B. DVCPRO50 > 480i
C. DVCPROHD > 2160i
D. DVCPROHD > 1080i
Answer: ABD

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NO.1 .Which of the following statements about underwater weighing is TRUE?
A. It can divide the body into bone, muscle, and fat components.
B. It assumes standard densities for bone, muscle, and fat.
C. It can divide the body into visceral and subcutaneous fat components.
D. It is a direct method of assessing body composition.
Answer: B

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NO.2 .A well-designed consent document developed in consultation with a qualified legal professional
provides your facility with
A. Documentation of a good-faith effort to educate your clients.
B. Legal documentation of aclient's understanding of assessment procedures.
C. Legal immunity against lawsuits.
D. No legal benefit.
Answer: A

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NO.3 .Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding informed consent?
A. Informed consent is not a legal document.
B. Informed consent does not provide legal immunity to a facility or individual in the event of injury
to a client.
C. Negligence, improper test administration, inadequate personnel qualifications, and insufficient
safety procedures are all items expressly covered by the informed consent.
D. Informed consent does not relieve the facility or individual of the responsibility to do everything
possible to ensure the safety of the client.
Answer: C

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NO.4 .Flexibility is a measure of the
A. Disease-free ROM about a joint.
B. Effort-free ROM about a joint.
C. Habitually used ROM about a joint.
D. Pain-free ROM about a joint.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The definition of cardiorespiratory fitness is
A. The maximal force that a muscle or muscle group can generate in a single effort.
B. The coordinated capacity of the heart, blood vessels, respiratory system, and tissue metabolic
systems to take in, deliver, and use oxygen.
C. The ability to sustain a held maximal force or to continue repeated sub maximal contractions.
D. The functional ROM about a joint.
Answer: B

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NO.6 .Which of the following criteria would NOT classify a client as having "increased risk"?
A. Signs and/or symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease.
B. Signs and/or symptoms of metabolic disease.
C. Two or more major risk factors for CAD.
D. Male older than 40 years with a history of clinical depression.
Answer: D

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NO.7 .Which of the following would most appropriately assess a previously sedentary, 40-yearold female
client's muscular strength?
A. Using a 30-pound (18-kg) barbell to perform biceps curls to fatigue.
B. Holding a handgrip dynamometer at 15 pounds (7 kg) to fatigue.
C. Performing modified curl-ups to fatigue.
D. U sing a 5-pound (2.2-kg) dumbbell to perform multiple sets of biceps curls to fatigue.
Answer: A

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NO.8 .Adults age physiologically at individual rates. Therefore, adults of any specified age will vary
widely in their physiologic responses to exercise testing. Special consideration should be given to
older adults when giving a fitness test, because
A. Age is often accompanied by de conditioning and disease.
B. Age predisposes older adults to clinical depression and neurologic diseases.
C. Older adults cannot be physically stressed beyond 75% of age-adjusted maximum.
D. Older adults are not as motivated to exercise as those who are younger.
Answer: A

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NO.9 .Which of the following formulae is used for determining workload on a bicycle ergometer?
A. Belt length x resistance x grade.
B. Belt length x resistance x revolutions pedaled per minute.
C. Resistance x distance flywheel traveled per revolution x revolutions per minute.
D. Resistance x distance flywheel traveled per revolution.
Answer: C

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NO.10 .A male client is 42 years old. His father died of a heart attack at age 62. He has a consistent
resting blood pressure (measured over 6 weeks) of 132/86 mm Hg and a total serum cholesterol
of 5.4 mmol/L. Based on his CAD risk stratification, which of the following activities is appropriate?
A. Maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
B. Sub maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
C. Vigorous exercise without a previous medical assessment.
D. Vigorous exercise without a previous physician-supervised exercise test.
Answer: C

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NO.11 .Relative contraindications for exercise testing are conditions for which
A. A physician should be present during the testing procedures.
B. Exercise testing should not be performed until the condition improves.
C. Exercise testing will not provide accurate assessment of health-related fitness.
D. Professional judgment about the risks and benefits of testing should determinewhether to
conduct an assessment.
Answer: D

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NO.12 .A client's health screening should be administered before
A. Any contact with the client.
B. Any physical activity by the client at your facility.
C. Fitness assessment or programming.
D. The initial "walk-through" showing of a facility.
Answer: B

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NO.13 .A client must be given specific instructions for the days preceding a fitness assessment. Which of
the following is NOT a necessary instruction to a client for a fitness assessment?
A. Men and women should avoid liquids for 12 hours before the test.
B. Clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol, tobacco products, or caffeine at least 3 hours
before the test.
C. Clients should avoid strenuous exercise or physical activity on the day of the test.
D. Men and women should be instructed to get an adequate amount of sleep the night before the
assessment.
Answer: A

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NO.14 .During calibration of a treadmill, the belt length was found to be 5.5 m. It took 1 minute and 40
seconds for the belt to travel 20 revolutions. What is the treadmill speed?
A. 4 m/min.
B. 66 m/min.
C. 79 m/min.
D. 110 m/min.
Answer: B

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NO.15 .Hydrodensitometry (hydrostatic weighing, underwater weighing) has several sources of error.
Which of the following is NOT a common source of error when using this technique to determine
body composition?
A. Measurement of the vital capacity of the lungs.
B. Interindividual variability in the amount of air in the gastrointestinal tract.
C. Interindividual variability in the density of the individual lean tissue compartment.
D. Measurement of the residual volume.
Answer: A

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NO.1 A primary responsibility of the Service Desk is to
A. Manage Major Incidents
B. Act as the resolver for all users Incidents and Service Requests
C. Resolve Problems
D. Acknowledge and record all Incidents and Service Requests
Answer: D

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NO.2 Why is it important to keep to your commitments to your team members?
A. It will help to ensure that bonuses are paid
B. My colleagues will admire my achievements
C. It improves the morale of the Service Desk
D. Management will not criticise my behaviour
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which attribute would you expect from good team members?
A. They are nice to everyone
B. They have good timekeeping skills
C. They listen to other peoples point of view
D. They cover up their mistakes
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which option best describes one of the roles of an SDA?
A. Managing users expectations
B. Delivering problem support
C. Negotiating SLAs with customers
D. Achieving reporting targets
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your manager has emphasised the importance of establishing effective working relationships with
other teams in the organisation. Of these options, which is the most important activity you should
undertake to enable this to happen?
A. Learn about and recognise the roles and responsibilities of other teams
B. Ensure that your team is seen by users as their champion
C. Treat everyone according to their importance in the organisation
D. Make certain that the IT director is aware of inter-team communication issues
Answer: A

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NO.6 Where would you find clear definitions of boundaries and procedures for dealing with inappropriate
behaviour?
A. Company policy documents
B. Incident Management documents
C. Service Desk procedure documents
D. Service Level Agreement documents
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which option is the best example of a closed question?
A. What are the symptoms of your Incident?
B. Tell me what you were doing immediately prior to the Incident?
C. What version of the software do you have?
D. How can I be of help?
Answer: C

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NO.8 If you are asked to name a Service Desk best practice, which option would be relevant?
A. SAP
B. KCS
C. Problem Management
D. itSMF
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the best reason for an SDA to follow documented processes and procedures?
A. It ensures that all customers perform consistently
B. It ensures that the SDA performs consistently
C. It ensures that customers consistently provide positive feedback
D. It ensures that the manager is protected from irate users
Answer: B

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NO.10 A new trainee is being inducted into the Service Desk and s/he questions why there are procedures
and the need for documentation. What should you tell him/her to justify the need for consistent
procedures and processes?
A. Clear procedures mean that everything is done uniformly to eliminate errors
B. Clear procedures mean that customers receive consistent service
C. SLAs and procedures ensure that staff will not be criticised if targets are not met
D. Consistent procedures mean that SLAs and OLAs will always be met
Answer: B

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NO.11 Your organisation documents company policies to which it expects all employees to adhere. What is
the most important reason for SDAs to ensure they work within these policies?
A. Company policies support consistent behaviour
B. Company policies emphasise deviations from acceptable behaviour
C. Company policies meet their managers criteria for success
D. Company policies support creative approaches for SDA activities
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which option is NOT a characteristic of a successful team?
A. Trust is encouraged amongst team members
B. Support from senior management is received
C. League tables are published
D. Participation in the decision-making process is encouraged
Answer: C

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NO.13 Your organisation has recently implemented SLAs and OLAs. A new starter on your team has confided
in you that they dont really understand what an OLA is; how would you explain it to him/her?
A. It is a legally enforceable contract between a user and a supplier to ensure user satisfaction with
services offered
B. It is an ad-hoc arrangement between internal support teams that is helpful to the support of a contract
C. It is an agreement between internal support teams that defines the support necessary to meet delivery
of IT Services
D. It is a methodology used to measure compliance to standards of behaviour
Answer: C

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NO.14 A list of desirable attributes included in a job description for a Service Desk Analyst should include ...
A. Seeing a users Incident or Service Request through to resolution, conveying a willingness to help and
being nice to senior management
B. Conveying a willingness to help, focussing on business needs and providing users with the best
possible service
C. Taking ownership of users Problems, maintaining a positive attitude and focussing your attention on
the user
D. Focussing on business needs, providing users with best possible service with an ability to answer a
high volume of calls
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which these options would NOT be a responsibility of the Service Desk?
A. Representing the IT organisation
B. Delivering first time fixes
C. Operating as a communications channel
D. Providing a reliable IT infrastructure
Answer: D

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NO.16 Some things can get in the way of good communication which of these options has the biggest impact
on a Service Desk?
A. Noise and general chatter
B. Inappropriate SLAs in place
C. An unreliable IT infrastructure
D. The users status in the organisation
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which option is a benefit of using Knowledge Management in a Service Desk?
A. This ensures that all staff will log Incidents uniformly
B. It removes the need for training of Service Desk staff
C. It reduces the Incident talk time for users
D. It reduces the overall cost of support
Answer: D

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NO.18 How would you characterise a failing team?
A. It is managed without SLAs
B. Its members are very touchy feely
C. Its members demonstrate low morale
D. It is solely focussed on business objectives
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is the best type of questioning to use to disengage a caller whilst ensuring a professional
approach to call management?
A. Reflective questions
B. Rapid questions
C. Open questions
D. Closed questions
Answer: D

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NO.20 In order to measure its efficiency, a Service Desk routinely measures First Contact Resolution
performance; what else might this data be used for?
A. To measure the effectiveness of the escalation procedure
B. To indicate levels of customer satisfaction
C. To measure how long users wait to speak to an SDA
D. To evaluate and adjust staffing levels
Answer: B

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NO.21 What should an SDA reasonably expect of users when they contact the service desk for assistance?
A. To provide valuable information regarding their opinion of the Service Desk
B. To provide valuable information regarding their view of the SLA
C. To provide an opportunity to receive feedback regarding their technical ability
D. To provide the relevant information needed to resolve their incident
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which of these options is a characteristic of a successfully performing team?
A. Attendance at team social events is mandatory.
B. The team leader closely manages everyone equally
C. A team member will do anything to be the best
D. Everyone actively listens to each other
Answer: D

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NO.23 Which of these options best describes personal accountability?
A. Delivering excellent levels of service quality
B. Admitting to errors
C. Taking ownership of your teams Incidents and Service Requests
D. Behaving and dressing in a distinctive manner
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which of these options best describes a benefit of good teamwork?
A. There is always someone else to pick up any work you fail to do
B. There is commitment to team decisions
C. There is a specialist for each product or service
D. There is less need for person-to-person communication
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which of these options is NOT part of the correct procedure for putting a user on hold?
A. Asking the user for permission to remotely access their system
B. Communicating a valid reason for putting the user on hold
C. Giving the user a reasonable time frame
D. Regularly updating the user about the wait-time
Answer: A

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NO.26 We should maintain a positive service attitude at all times; which option is the best reason for doing
so?
A. A good service attitude will improve SLA performance
B. Users will see the Service Desk as cheerful happy people
C. It will help to build confidence in the service
D. A bad attitude means that SLAs wont be met
Answer: C

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responsibilities?
A. To provide easily understood and accurate answers to users questions
B. To provide technically detailed answers to users questions
C. To provide users with information about the workings of the Service Desk
D. To provide recommendations about technical courses to users
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the options best describes a key responsibility of a Service Desk Manager?
A. To deliver ad-hoc levels of service quality from the Service Desk
B. To promote the Service Desk to the organisation and users
C. To manage Incidents and Major Incidents
D. To develop and manage the Problem Management team
Answer: B

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NO.29 What is the best way for an SDA to enhance the image of the Service Desk?
A. Dress to reflect your professionalism
B. Ensure users are aware that the Service Desk is the key component in IT
C. Provide accurate information to users without denigrating other teams
D. Advise users of resolutions via the weekly Service Desk email
Answer: C

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NO.30 Your manager has told you that the Service Desk team must provide excellent customer service at all
times. As an SDA, what is the most important thing you must do to ensure that this happens?
A. Always show plenty of sympathy to the users
B. Always follow the procedures you understand best
C. Always reprimand colleagues who fail to deliver service excellence
D. Always listen to what users tell you
Answer: D

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Exam Name: BlackBerry (Supporting a BlackBerry Enterprise Server v5.0 in an IBM Lotus Domino Environment)
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Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Where can you test the network connectivity from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to the BlackBerry
Infrastructure? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Administration Service
B. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
C. BlackBerry Server Configuration Panel
D. MDS Integration Service Administration Console
E. SQL Management Studio
Answer: C

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NO.2 BlackBerry device users have been calling the support desk all day reporting message delays of 5 to
25 minutes. A request has been made to isolate the issue and identify the source. Which of the
following questions will assist with the process? (Choose three.)
A. Do the affected users span multiple messaging servers?
B. Are PIN messages delayed (sending and/or receiving)?
C. Is each user enabled for email message redirection?
D. Was the corporate firewall recently rebooted?
E. Are the messaging servers working properly and without issues?
Answer: A,B,E

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trying to send: Failure at Service. The user is unable to send PIN messages as well. They are able to
make phone calls from the BlackBerry device. No other user on the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server is having this issue. What could a system administrator do to troubleshoot this issue?
(Choose one.)
A. Restart the BlackBerry Controller Service to force a mailboxrescan.
B. Associate the user's PIN number back into the database for the users information.
C. Contact the service provider to ensure the correct data provisioning for the user.
D. Wipe the BlackBerry device and complete and enterprise activation process.
E. Ensure the Send As permission is set in Active Directory for this user.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What component is responsible for the encryption and decryption of data? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
B. BlackBerry Administration Service
C. BlackBerry Controller Service
D. BlackBerry Messaging Agent Service
E. BlackBerry Router Service
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which port is required to be open on the firewall in order for Wi-Fi data to pass from the
BlackBerry device to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose one.)
A. 3101
B. 4101
C. 1433
D. 1533
E. 7433
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following are two pieces of information that are required when configuring a remote
component for high availability? (Choose two.)
A. IP addresses
B. Fully Qualified Host Name
C. High Availability Pool Name
D. NetBios Name
E. DNS Alias
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 After initializing the enterprise activation process on the BlackBerry device, the following error is
displayed: An error has occurred. Please contact your system administrator. What is a possible cause for
this? (Choose one.)
A. The user has not been assigned an IT policy
B. The BlackBerry Synchronization Service is not running
C. The BlackBerry device radio has not been turned on
D. The password that was entered is incorrect
E. The user has not been assigned the appropriate role in the BlackBerry Administration Service
Answer: D

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NO.8 The BlackBerry Monitoring Service can send notifications using which of the following methods?
(Choose three.)
A. Phone (VoIP)
B. Email
C. PIN
D. Network Broadcast
E. Instant Messaging
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 During the enterprise activation process the following error is displayed on the BlackBerry device:
IT Policy Rejected What is a possible cause of this error? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device has been activated on another BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. The BlackBerry device is listed in the Enterprise Service Policy
C. The user does not have an IT policy assigned
D. The user does not have the appropriate role assigned
E. The BlackBerry Policy Service is not running
Answer: A

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NO.10 The BlackBerry Dispatcher Service communicates with the BlackBerry Collaboration Service, the
BlackBerry MDS Connection Service, the BlackBerry Policy Service and the BlackBerry Synchronization
Service using which of the following ports? (Choose one.)
A. Port 1433
B. This Port is dynamically created upon the BlackBerry Dispatcher Service Startup
C. Port 3200
D. This Port is dynamically created upon the BlackBerry Controller Service Startup
Answer: C

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NO.11 During the final stage of the wireless enterprise activation the following error is displayed on the
BlackBerry device: IT requires that you connect this handheld to the device manager to continue
activation. What is a possible cause of this? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device does not have data services enabled
B. The BlackBerry Synchronization Service is not started
C. Wireless backup has been disabled for the user
D. The BlackBerry device is running BlackBerry Device Software prior to 4.0
E. The Disable Wireless Bulk Loads IT policy has been enabled
Answer: E

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NO.12 Which of the following options is NOT available in the BlackBerry Web Desktop Software? (Choose
one.)
A. Wired synchronization of organizer (PIM) data
B. Application Loader
C. Backup and Restore
D. Setting enterprise activation passwords
E. Configuring email message filters
Answer: A

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NO.13 A BlackBerry device user is trying to login to the local Intranet web site but is not able to
authenticate. What could a system administrator do to assist the user with the authentication? (Choose
one.)
A. Resend the IPPP service books to the user that is experiencing the issue
B. Verify the proxy server information within the Blackberry MDS Connection Service
C. Restart the BlackBerry Administration Service to force resending of service books
D. Activate the user with the BlackBerry MDS Integration Service
E. Add the user's name to theserver.property xml file within the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: B

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NO.14 How is the initial enterprise activation email message transmitted from the BlackBerry device? (Choose
one.)
A. Encrypted using AES
B. Encrypted using RSA
C. Plain text
D. Encrypted using Triple DES
E. As a hash
Answer: E

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NO.15 After a system wide maintenance was completed in an organization, the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
was restarted. After a few minutes it was determined that the BlackBerry Dispatcher
Service was failing to start with the system specific error 5608. The system administrator also confirms
the following:
-The BlackBerry Administration Service console is unable to launch
-The BlackBerry Policy and BlackBerry Synchronization Services do not start
Which of the following would be the most likely cause of the issue? (Choose one.)
A. The SRP connection is down
B. Lost connectivity to the messaging server
C. Lost connectivity to the database server
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server disk subsystem has crashed
E. A new operating system patch has been installed on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: C

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NO.16 An organization policy has been changed and new security guidelines have been put in place. All
servers that require access to the public Internet must be placed in the DMZ. Which BlackBerry Enterprise
Server component can be place in the DMZ? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
B. BlackBerry Router Service
C. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
D. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. BlackBerry Collaboration Service
Answer: B

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NO.17 How can a BlackBerry device user assign themselves their own enterprise activation password?
(Choose one.)
A. Inputtheir own password in the enterprise activation screen on the BlackBerry device
B. Specify an activation password in BlackBerry Desktop Manager
C. Launch BlackBerry Device Manager and specify their own activation password
D. When swapping BlackBerry devices the new BlackBerry device will automatically prompt the user for a
new activation password
E. Login to BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager and specify an activation password
Answer: E

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NO.18 Which method of enterprise activation uses the BlackBerry Router Service to relay the activation email
to a users email address? (Choose one.)
A. Wi-Fi
B. Bluetooth
C. BlackBerry Desktop Manager
D. BlackBerry Administration Service
E. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
Answer: A

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NO.19 What are the minimum versions for the BlackBerry Enterprise Solution to support Notes Native
Encryption? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Device Software 4.1, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 4.1, BlackBerry Desktop
Manager 4.1, IBM Lotus Notes 7.0, and IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0
B. BlackBerry Device Software 4.0, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 4.0, BlackBerry Desktop
Manager 4.0, IBM Lotus Notes 7.0 and IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0
C. BlackBerry Device Software 4.2, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0, BlackBerry Desktop
Manager 4.2, IBM Lotus Notes 7.0 and IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0
D. BlackBerry Device Software 5.0, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0, BlackBerry Web Desktop 1.0, IBM
Lotus Notes 8.0 and IBM Lotus Domino Server 8.0
E. BlackBerry Device Software 3.6, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 4.1, BlackBerry Desktop
Manager 4.1, IBM Lotus Notes 6.5 and IBM Lotus Domino Server 6.5
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following default host and ports will a system administrator need to browse to in order to
configure the BlackBerry Monitoring Service? (Choose one.)
A. https://<servername>:8443/webconsole/app
B. https://<servername>/webconsole/app
C. http://<servername>/webconsole/app
D. http://<servername>:8080/webconsole/app
E. https://<servername>:7443/webconsole/app
Answer: A

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Exam Code: BCP-521
Exam Name: BlackBerry (Integrating the BlackBerry MVS SIP Gateway Solution)
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Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 An IP-to-IP solution has just been configured. There are two Proxy Sets in the configuration. What two
entities do the Proxy Sets represent? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerryMVS Server
B. BlackBerryDispatcher
C. Vendor Media Gateway
D. Vendor IP PBX
E. BlackBerry Router
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 During a BlackBerry MVS installation, an MVS administrator is prompted to enter a MVS Data Manager
Hostname or IP Address.
Which IP Address value should this be? (Choose one.)
A. PBX
B. Serverwhere MVS is being installed
C. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. BlackBerry Configuration Database server
Answer: B

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NO.3 A European company has integrated its Avaya Communication Manager to the AudioCodes Mediant
Gateway with an E1 interface.
Which E1 signaling protocol is required.? (Choose one.)
A. SIP
B. CAS
C. QSIG
D. 5ESS
Answer: C

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NO.4 If the MVS BlackBerry Enterprise Server Connector is NOT started, what effect will this have on
BlackBerry MVS Services? (Choose one.)
A. Incoming MVS calls will be available
B. Outgoing MVS calls will be available
C. Message Waiting Indicator will be disabled
D. MVS work line will be unregistered
Answer: D

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NO.5 A BlackBerry MVS customer needs to provision a group of BlackBerry MVS users so they will be able to
use BlackBerry MVS in a Voice over Wi-Fi only mode.
Which two tasks should the MVS administrator perform to provide the customer with this capability?
(Choose two.)
A. Within the MVS users settings configuration, set When Wi-Fi is unavailable, use Mobile to NO
B. Within the MVS users settings configuration, set Default line for outgoing calls to Voice over Wi-Fi
C. Within the Class of Service configuration, select the VoWi-Fi check box
D. Within the Class of Service configuration, disable User may change the default network for BlackBerry
MVS calls
E. Within the Class of Service configuration, enable User may change the default network for BlackBerry
MVS calls
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 What is the minimum number of BlackBerry MVS Servers needed to support 14,000 users in a High
Availability environment? (Choose one.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the way to test the Add Participant to a Call feature for an individual MVS user without
impacting existing users if most features are disabled during installation? (Choose one.)
A. Create a new template
B. Create a new Feature Set
C. Create a new Class of Service
D. Create a new Telephony Connector
Answer: C

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NO.8 DTMF tones are blocked from reaching the SIP Gateway. How will this affect MVS users? (Choose
one.)
A. Calls over the Wi-Fi network will fail
B. Calls over the mobile network will fail
C. BlackBerry MVS Client will show as unregistered
D. DTMF tones will not be recognized on a conference bridge
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer with an Avaya PBX infrastructure is interested in purchasing BlackBerry MVS. The
customer needs to deploy BlackBerry MVS using a TDM configuration. The PBX environment includes
the Avaya components listed below.
Avaya S8730 Media Server configured for High Availability
Avaya Communication Manager 5.2
Avaya G650 Media Gateways
Which component does the customer need to facilitate the BlackBerry MVS integration? (Choose one.)
A. Dialogic Media Gateway
B. AudioCodes Mediant Gateway
C. Avaya Aura Session Manager
D. Avaya SIP Enablement Server
Answer: B

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NO.10 When an external caller calls an MVS user, the MVS user's BlackBerry smartphone fails to ring.
The MVS user is provisioned for BlackBerry device-initiated calling.
What is the likely cause of this failure? (Choose one.)
A. DTMF digits were rejected by the PBX as an invalid number
B. BlackBerry MVS Client did not create the call request
C. BlackBerry MVS Client did not receive the proper ANI number
D. BlackBerry MVS Client did not receive the call request
Answer: D

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