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Exam Code: C2020-642
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Scorecard Developer)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 Which activities can only be performed by the Metric Store Administrator?
A. Set policies.
B. Create the root scorecard.
C. Run import and export options.
D. Add links to a CognosBI report.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What must be done to load the data successfully into Metric Studio using structured query language
(SQL) scripts?
A. Perform the task Recalculate metric store derived values after each script execution.
B. Perform the task Import data from files into staging area after each script execution
C. Structure the query language to map data from the relational database to the content store.
D. Structure the query language to map data from the relational database to the staging tables
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which tile extension must be used on the tab-delimited file that defines relationships between objects?
A. .cmo
B. .cmr
C. .cml
D. .cmm
Answer: C

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NO.4 What directory contains log files needed to troubleshoot problems importing data?
A. installation_location/logs/MetricStorelnstall
B. installation_location/logs/MetricMaintenance
C. installation_location/logs/MetricUpgradePackage
D. installation_location/logs/MetricStoreUpgrade
Answer: B

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NO.5 A tab-delimited file with a cmm extension contains what type of objects?
A. Metrics
B. Metric types
C. Metric values
D. Import sources
Answer: B

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NO.6 A user needs to update target values ONLY for:
Americas Return quantity %
Americas Return quantity % Defective product
Americas Return quantity % Incomplete product
What minimum permissions MUST be applied on the objects for that user?
A. Write target values permissions to the Americas scorecard and read permissions to all ancestor
scorecards.
B. Write permissions to the three metrics and traverse permissions to all ancestor scorecards.
C. Write target values permissions to the three metrics and read permissions to all ancestor scorecards
D. Write permissions to the Americas scorecard and read permissions to all ancestor scorecards
Answer: C

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NO.7 How would the scorecard developer delete the Marketing scorecard and move its children under the
Corporate scorecard.?
A. In the user interface, drag the children to the Corporate scorecard and then delete the Marketing
scorecard.
B. In the user interface, mark the Marketing scorecard for deletion, drag the Corporate scorecard and run
re-calculate metrics derived values.
C. In the .cmo file, re-assign the parent to the children scorecard and then mark the Marketing scorecard
for deletion.
D. In the .cmdfile. re-assign the parent to the children scorecard and then mark the Marketing scorecard
for deletion.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement is true about staging tables?
A. Staging tables map to Data ManagerTables
B. Staging tables map to tab-delimited files
C. Staging tables map to tables in the data warehouse
D. Staging tables map to tables in the content store
Answer: B

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NO.9 A tab-delimited file with a cmo extension can be used to create what type of object?
A. Scorecards
B. Metric types
C. Calendar levels
D. Permissions
Answer: A

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NO.10 An administrator attempted to transfer metric values from the staging area into the metric store.
However, not all of the metrics were populated with expected values. In which table can the administrator
locate the rejected rows for review, correction, and reloading?
A. KPI_VALUE_STAGE_REJECTS
B. OBJECT_STAGE_REJECTS
C. METRIC_TYPE_STAGE_REJECTS
D. OBJECT_NOTE_STAGE_REJECTS
Answer: A

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Exam Code: A2090-423
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: Information Analyzer v8.5 Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 When creating a Scheduling View, which two of the following options can be
configured? (Choose
two.)
A. Status > Schedule > Pending
B. Status > Task Run > Abnormally Ended
C. Status > Task Run > Successfully Ended
D. Origins > Information Analyzer > IA Export Project
E. Origins > Information Analyzer > IA Report Execution
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which of the following is true about ODBC DSN's (data source names)?
A. No ODBC DSN's are required.
B. You must manually create the Information Analyzer database DSN.
C. You must create a DSN for the data sources on both the client and server.
D. The Information Analyzer database DSN is automatically created at installation time.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are managing a business analyst who is annotating column profile details with
issues and
resolutions.
You wish to see how many annotations remain open for resolution. Which report should you
create and
review?
A. Metric Summary Project Status report
B. Metadata Summary-Column Profile Status report
C. Project Status- Project Summary by Notes Status report
D. Domain Quality Summary- Column Quality by Status report
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are working with a subject matter expert who does not have the Information
Server console
installed, but needs to receive a detailed value frequency distribution as a comma-delimited
(csv) file.
Which two of the following options can you use to deliver the required file? (Choose two.)
A. Go to the Investigate>Table Management functions, select the frequency distribution file;
export as a
Delimited file; and send the file.
B. Go to the Investigate>Publish Analysis Result functions, select the frequency distribution
file; export as
a Delimited file; and send the file.
C. Go to the Reports menu, select the Data Rule Frequency Distribution report; choose the
TXT output
option and generate the report; and provide the URL to the report output.
D. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getColumnOutputTable option
providing the
correct project and column names and the -csv format parameter; run the command and
send the file.
E. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getFrequencyDistribution
option providing
the correct project and column names and the -xsl format parameter to a csv-formatting
stylesheet ; run
the command and send the file.
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 You are setting up an automated process to run a set of data rules on a weekly basis.
You want to
evaluate the execution status via the Information Analyzer command line interface (CLI)
before running
subsequent reports. Which of the following do you need to evaluate?
A. Select the -runTasks option specifying the -getExecutionStatus parameter and evaluate
the status
attribute of the <RuleExecutionResult> element.
B. Select the -getExecutionHistory option specifying the -ruleName parameter and evaluate
the status
attribute of the <RuleExecutionResult> element.
C. Select the -getExecutableRule option specifying the -getExecutionHistory and -ruleName
parameters
and evaluate the status attribute of the <DataRuleResult> element.
D. Select the -getExecutableRule/ExecutionHistory option specifying the -ruleName
parameter and
evaluate the status attribute of the <DataRuleExecutionHistory> element.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are trying to identify a multi-column primary key in a table of 50 million records.
What steps can
you take to minimize performance impact?
A. None, you must always assess full volume of data.
B. Use a data sample; apply regression analysis to identify statistically likely candidates;
apply duplicate
check.
C. Use a data sample; limit the test to specific columns at one time; incrementally increase
the number of
possible column combinations.
D. Use a data sample; apply functional dependency analysis to remove dependent columns;
incrementally increase the number of possible column combinations.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following is the correct HTTP API request format for creating a data rule
definition in an
existing project?
A. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?ruleDefinition
B. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?projectContent
C.http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/project?projectName=<YourProjectName>
D.http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/ruleDefinition?projectName=<YourProject
Name>&rule
Name=<YourRuleName>
Answer: B

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NO.8 When analyzing large number of columns in Information Analyzer, which two
components may require
capacity planning review? (Choose two.)
A. Disk space on the Engine layer.
B. Disk space on the Application Server.
C. Buffer pools on the Application Server.
D. Information Server Metadata repository.
E. Information Analyzer Analysis database.
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 You submitted a column analysis job with the "Retain Scripts" set to no. The column
analysis job
finished with an "error encountered" final message. You have access to the DataStage
Director client.
Which option would allow you to find the source of the error.?
A. Create a log view in Information Analyzer and rerun the job. Examine the log to determine
the error.
B. Rerun the job with the "Retain Scripts" turned on. The error message will be returned to
the Information
Analyzer status window.
C. Submit the job from Information Analyzer. After it finishes log onto DataStage Director and
examine the
job log to determine the source of the error.
D. Submit the job from Information Analyzer and place it on hold. Log onto DataStage
Director, release
the job and examine the job log to determine the source of the error.
Answer: A

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NO.10 When working with Information Analyzer reports, which two functions require use of
the reporting
functionality in the Information Server Web Console? (Choose two.)
A. Add the report to Favorites.
B. Create the report as a PDF.
C. Grant Access to report result.
D. Create a Log Messages report.
E. Choose Expiration Policy for Report.
Answer: C,E

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NO.11 You are installing Information Analyzer and plan to use Oracle as the Information
Analyzer analysis
database.
Which statement is true?
A. The metadata database must also be Oracle.
B. The metadata database does not have to be Oracle.
C. Only Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) is supported.
D. The Information Analyzer analysis database can not be Oracle.
Answer: B

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NO.12 While reviewing the results of a data rule test you find a logic error. Which option will
allow you to
troubleshoot this error?
A. Set the debug option when submitting the test job, then review the log.
B. Open a command window on the client, submit the job and view the log.
C. Set Retain Scripts to on and use DataStage Director to review the job log.
D. Create a log view to capture the CAS log. Rerun the rule and review the log.
Answer: A

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NO.13 In a large enterprise, the human resource business unit wants to ensure the restriction
of the analysis
and analysis results to a set of HR managers. Which configuration will support this
requirement?
A. Use operating system IDs and database IDs to restrict access.
B. Use Information Server roles and security to restrict access to analysis and results.
C. Install an Information Analyzer environment (analysis server, analysis engine, analysis
database) for
the HR business unit.
D. Install an analysis engine for each business unit and one analysis database using
Information server
security to restrict access.
Answer: C

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NO.14 When analyzing large volumes of source data in column analysis, which two
statements identify ways
you can improve processing performance? (Choose two.)
A. Use data sampling in Information Analyzer.
B. Add more space to the Metadata repository.
C. Modify the project Analysis settings to increase the buffer pools.
D. Modify the DataStage apt config file to use multiple nodes and parallel process the data.
E. Modify the Information Analyzer Analysis database config file to parallel process the data.
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 Which statement is true about analysis settings?
A. Default Analysis settings can be created for individual users.
B. Default Analysis settings cannot be configured for all projects.
C. Default Analysis settings can be configured at the project level.
D. Default Analysis settings are controlled by the DataStage Analysis project.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M2010-245
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Automation Sales Mastery Test v4)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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complex IT
Environment?
A. Monitoring.
B. Track of changes and configuration.
C. View of the current environment.
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the name of the IBM Business Service Management solution that: Simplifies
service model
maintenance through discovery integration, Provides Real-time status through Consolidated
Operations
Management integration, and Calculates ° Key Pe rf o r m ance I nd i ca t o r ¡± b y l ev er a
gi n g a ut om at e
acquisition of business metrics?
A. Tivoli Business Service Management
B. Tivoli Business Service Strategy
C. IBM Business Framework
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Name the solution that is offered as a component of TEM (Tivoli Endpoint Manager) for
Lifecycle
Management, Security & Compliance and also offered as a standalone product.?
A. Patch Management
B. Version Management
C. Compliance Management
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C4070-604
Exam Name: IBM (IBM System z Technical V5 )
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Total Q&A: 57 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 Which new z196 feature provides significant error detection and correction capabilities
for bit, lane,
DRAM, DIMM socket and memory channel failures?
A. RAS
B. RAID
C. RACEv
D. RAIM
Answer: D

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NO.2 During which of the following activities do the customer and the technical specialist
define post
installation support?
A. During the TDA (Solution Assurance)
B. When establishing the system ship date
C. When configuring the System z using eConfig
D. During the installation of the equipment by the CE
Answer: A

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NO.3 A new customer has approached a System z Technical Specialist to help them upgrade
their older
System z mainframe. Growth is minimal. Which of the following is needed to create an initial
z114
configuration?
A. Energy consumption
B. Disk Storage Growth Rates
C. Installed Base System Report
D. The number of distributed servers installed
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer technical staff has been briefed on migration to a z114 or z196. They are
discussing the new
features with the System z Technical Specialist. Which of the following customer statements
is incorrect
and must be corrected by the Technical Specialist.?
A. Addition and removal of z196 I/O cage is disruptive
B. There is Plan Ahead option available for the I/O drawers
C. The I/O drawers can be added or removed non-disruptively
D. The correct mix of I/O cage and drawers is configured based on the number and type of
I/O features
ordered
Answer: B

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NO.5 A System z customer is planning to move their data center with several existing System
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specialist
discuss with the customer?
A. Ordering the height reduction feature if needed
B. Top Exit Cabling Option is required for all the CPCs
C. Confirm all the System z servers are z9 BC, z10 BC or z114
D. Confirm the new installation is compliant with the Installation Manual for Physical Plugging
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2060-218
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Sterling B2B Integrator V5.2, Solution Implementation )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 A company is planning to offer FTPS connection to its community of trading partners. They already
have one server certificate in IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) that they want to use for the FTPS server
in the production environment. In the development environment they want to use a self-signed test
certificate. Where can the test certificate be created?
A. Trading Partner > Digital Certificates > CA
B. Trading Partner > Digital Certificates > Trusted
C. Trading Partner > Digital Certificates > System
D. Trading Partner > Digital Certificates > Cert Manager
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer has deployed a two node active-active IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) cluster in the
secure zone on two servers. The customer has installed two servers in the DMZ for the purpose of
installing remote SBI Perimeter Servers to facilitate communications with external partners. External
partners will connect to an external IP Load Balancer that will distribute inbound FTP/S, SFTP and HTTP
Client sessions across the Perimeter Servers. The customer requirement is that if any single server fails,
all the other SBI nodes and remote Perimeter Server instances must continue to activelyThe customer.?
requirement is that if any single server fails, all the other SBI nodes and remote Perimeter Server
instances must continue to actively handle inbound sessions for each protocol. What is the minimum
number of remote Perimeter Server instances that must be deployed in the DMZ?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: C

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NO.3 The system default for the amount of time a Business Process (BP) remains online in the system is set
to five days. How can that value be overridden?
A. Update noapp.properties.
B. Modify the lifespan setting for a BP.
C. Update with the Performance Tuning wizard.
D. Create a new Retention Service configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A company has set up an adapter Container JVM to increase performance and reliability. Which three
server adapters are available to be used with the container? (Choose three.)
A. Connect:Direct
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. JMS
E. OFTP
F. SMTP
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Of the locations where persistence levels can be set, which has the highest precedence?
A. Global
B. System
C. Trading Partner
D. Business Process (BP) Definition
Answer: D

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NO.6 A Business Process (BP) implementer wants to use the Document Keyword Replace Service in the
Graphical Process Modeler (GPM) but the service is not showing in the All Services stencil. What needs
to be done to make the Document Keyword Replace Service show in the GPM?
A. Update the license file.
B. Create a service configuration.
C. Execute install3rdParty.sh/.cmd.
D. Add JavaTask to adapters.properties.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Based on the screen shot, how many days will documents and other trackable data stay in the system
by default?
A. 1 dayA.1 day
B. 2 daysB.2 days
C. 3 daysC.3 days
D. The setting is controlled at the individual Business Process (BP) level.
D.The setting is controlled at the individual Business Process (BP) level.
Answer: C

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NO.8 A company wants to change their document storage to file system storage for a IBM Sterling B2B
Integrator (SBI) cluster deployment. Which configuration needs to exist?
A. with a shared file system mounted as /FS: document_dir.jdbc.properties=/shared
defaultDocumentStorageType.jdbc.properties=FS
B. with a shared file system mounted as /FS: document_dir.jdbc.properties=/FS
defaultDocumentStorageType.jdbc.properties=shared
C. with a shared file system mounted as /shared: document_dir.jdbc.properties=/FS
defaultDocumentStorageType.jdbc.properties=FS
D. with a shared file system mounted as /shared: document_dir.jdbc.properties=/shared
defaultDocumentStorageType.jdbc.properties=FS
Answer: D

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NO.9 Given the following information from the servers.properties file:
noapp=/home/SBI/properties/noapp.properties jboss=/home/SBI/properties/noapp.properties
jdbcService=/home/SBI/properties/jdbc.properties
jdbcServiceCustomer=/home/SIB/properties/jdbc_customer.properties
si_config=/home/SBI/properties/sandbox.cfg
customer_overrides=/home/SBI/properties/customer_overrides.properties
filesystem=/home/SBI/properties/filesystem.properties
The customer would like to change the default directory to store on-disk documents to a new directory.
How should this override be configured in the system?
A. Edit sandbox.cfg and add document_dir=<new directory full path>.
B. Edit filesystem.properties and add filesystem.document_dir=<new directory full path>.
C. Edit customer_overrides.properties and add jdbcService.document_dir=<new directory full path>.
D. Edit jdbc_customer.properties and add jdbcServiceCustomer.document_dir=<new directory full path>.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A developer has created a Business Process (BP) that uses the File System Adapter to write a file to the
file system. Where should the target file name be stored in the BP so that the File System Adapter can
retrieve it?
A. Primary Data
B. Process Data
C. Primary Document
D. Process Document
Answer: B

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NO.11 A company allows trading partners to send files to it via SFTP. Which port needs to be configured on
the SFTP Server adapter to define the communication port?
A. Data Port
B. Send Port
C. Listen Port
D. Passive Port
Answer: C

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NO.12 IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) uses a certificate to encrypt persisted documents. If this certificate
needs to be replaced with a deployment specific certificate, which certificate store is the new certificate
imported into before updating the certificate name in the customer overrides property file?
A. CA
B. Trusted
C. System
D. Certificate
Answer: C

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NO.13 IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) is installed with a LDAP connection to allow users to log in using
their username/password stored in the LDAP server. A user is created in SBI as a local user and the
InternalUser password policy is specified. The InternalUser policy states that the password has to be
changed every 30 days. After 29 days the SBI security administrator deletes the InternalUser policy from
the system. When the user logs in two days later, will the user be prompted to change the password?
A. Yes, because of the configuration of the original password policy.
B. No, because the policy is deleted so the user has no password policy.
C. The user will not be logged in because there is no valid policy specified.
D. No, the policy is irrelevant since the password is managed by the LDAP server.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What would cause the IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) database size to continually grow and thus
impact performance?
A. persistence level set to FULL
B. improperly sized database connection pools
C. index, archive, and purge services not running
D. incorrect number of database threads assigned
Answer: C

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NO.15 A company requires FTP users to be unable to login after five failed login attempts. How can this be
accomplished?
A. Create a Lockout Policy.
B. Configure the FTP user account.
C. Configure a LoginPolicy service configuration.
D. Add an entry to customer_overrides.properties.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2180-178
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.2, BPM Development)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 49 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 A developer implements the following service:
What does the developer find after the service attempts to handle the exception if the Special Handler
script fails?
A. The service is terminated.
B. The script is executed repeatedly until the error is resolved.
C. The service throws the exception to be caught by a higher level service or process.
D. An exception is caught and processed within the current activity and then the service terminates.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A developer builds an integration service using a Java Integration Component, and wants the result of
the Java method that is invoked to be serialized and returned to the Integration service as an XML
element. What must the developer do to ensure this.?
A. Enable the Translate JavaBeans check box.
B. Nest the Integration service in another service.
C. Choose the method that you want to call on the class.
D. Click the Variables tab for the Integration service to add any input variables.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A developer needs to use the static custom Java API that was developed by another development team.
The developer needs to use that custom API directly in the Lombardi process application and toolkits.
Which one of the following connectors must the developer use to fulfill the above requirement?
A. API Connector
B. HTTP Connector
C. Java Connector
D. SOAP Connector
Answer: C

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NO.4 A developer is integrating WebSphere Lombardi Edition with an external system using a SOAP
connector. What language should the developer use in the SOAP request for the integration to function
properly?
A. XML
B. XSLT
C. HTML
D. XHTML
Answer: A

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NO.5 A developer requires a service to query a database. The database does not have any restrictions on
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service?
A. Read, write and update
B. Read only, not write or update
C. Read only, not write or update, and binary large objects (BLOB) data types cannot be read
D. Read, write and update, but binary large objects (BLOB) data types cannot be read, written, or updated
Answer: A

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Exam Code: A4040-221
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: AIX 7 Administration )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 229 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 How can an administrator disable Role Based Access Control (RBAC) in a WPAR?
A. Run chattr -E -I sys0 -a enhanced_RBAC=false Reboot the WPAR
B. Run the RBAC wizard and deselect 'Enable RBAC Reboot the system
C. Run chdev -I mywpar -a enhanced_RBAC=false Reboot the Global Environment
D. Run chwpar -a RBAC=false Reboot the WPAR
Answer: C

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NO.2 The following information has been reported in an AIX error log:
How can the administrator prevent the error from reoccurring?
A. Create a secondary dump device greater than 266MB
B. Increase primary dump device size greater than 266MB
C. Increase "/var" file system to ensure it has a minimum of 266MB free space
D. Increase "/var/adm/ras/livedump" file system to ensure it has a minimum of 266MB free space
Answer: C

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NO.3 After performing a NIM rte install, the administrator noticed that not all filesets are at the
correct Technology Level (TL). What action will help the administrator determine why the
inconsistent fileset levels were installed?
A. On the NIM server, run an Ippchk to identify if the Software Vital Product Data is valid.
B. On the NIM client, run oslevel command against the TL to identify missing prerequisites.
C. Run instfix command on NIM client to determine what filesets are inconsistent.
D. On the NIM server run the NIM IsIpp command to indentify downlevel filesets contained in the
lpp_source.
Answer: D

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NO.4 An LPAR is configured with strict logical volume mirroring across two disks for resilience. The
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will ensure that the datavg volume group stays online?
A. varyonvg -n datavg
B. mirrorvg-Q-c 2 datavg
C. mklvcopy -e m -s y (each logical volume name) 2
D. chvg -Qn datavg
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the difference between deferred and concurrent firmware updates?
A. Deferred firmware can be applied concurrently but contains updates that affect the internal
program load path, which are not activated until the next time the server is shut down and restarted.
B. Concurrent firmware must be done on all LPARs in the frame at the same time. Deferred
firmware can be loaded on each LPAR at a different time and only becomes active when the LPAR is
shutdown and restarted.
C. Deferred firmware can only be applied during an outage to the managed system as it will
automatically shut the managed system down during its installation.
D. Concurrent firmware is only for minor fixes to the system mircocode while deferred firmware
contains major fixes to the service processor.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which technology provides the maximum amount of usable storage and resilience for a
system with 6 physical volumes?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is a requirement for Live Partition Mobility?
A. The network and disk must be virtual.
B. The disk must be virtual and a Logical Host Ethernet Adapter (LHEA) for network.
C. The client partition must be connected to a SAN.
D. The client partition must be set up as a 'Mover Service Partition'.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A host has a single virtual Ethernet adapter (ent0) configured with only a default PVID, and the
administrator is trying to determine why it cannot be used to reach any other system on the
network. He suspects that it may be caused by a problem in the VLAN configuration.
How would the administrator determine the VLAN for which the adapter was configured?
A. Use the command 'Isdev -I ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
B. Use the command 'Isattr-EI ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
C. Look on the HMC to determine which VLAN is configured for the adapter.
D. Examine the Shared Ethernet Adapter on the Virtual I/O Server to determine which VLAN the
adapter is using.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: P2090-011
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Change Data Capture Technical Mastery Test v2 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 What happens when a new CDC subscription is created while database logging is
turned off at the
source?
A. The CDC instance cannot be connected
B. The datastore cannot be created or connected
C. The subscription that uses the source datastore cannot be created
D. When the subscription is started using the Management Console, the replication will not
succeed.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following will be a valid SOURCE for "InfoSphere Change Data Capture
(CDC) for Oracle
Triggers".?
A. Local Oracle databases running on any supported platform
B. Remote Oracle databases running on any supported platform
C. Both local and remote Oracle databases running on any supported platform
D. Heterogeneous databases running on any supported platform
Answer: A

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NO.3 The default port number 10101 assigned to Access Server is ________________.
A. a fixed value pre-assigned by the software that can never be changed
B. a fixed value assigned by users at the time of installing the software
C. automatically assigned based on the license key
D. updatable by editing the Management Console properties
Answer: D

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NO.4 CDC guarantees data integrity by using two-phase commit operation between
____________.
A. source tables and source metadata
B. target tables and target metadata
C. source tables and target Tables
D. source metadata and target metadata
Answer: B

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A. Microsoft Visual C++ compiler
B. JDK only
C. Both JRE and JDK
D. No additional software is required
Answer: B

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NO.1 IBM i provides the capability to use digital certificates to sign objects. What objects,
other than
Programs (*PGM). Service programs (*SRVPGM) and Modules (*MODULE) may be signed?
A. Libraries(*LIB)
SQL Packages (*SQLPKG)
B. Query definitions (*QRYDFN)
Journals (*JRN)
C. Populated save files (*FILE SAVF)
Commands (*CMD)
D. Message queues (*MSGQ)
Populated data Queues (*DTAQ)
E. Physical files (*FILE PF-DTA)
User Profiles (*USRPRF)
Answer: A

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NO.2 An administrator plans to use a single LPAR and Management Central to manage
PTFs for other
systems in the enterprise. What is the most important consideration when deciding the
baseline.?
A. All systems are the same OS level.
B. All systems are at the same PTFGRP level
C. All systems are at the same test fix level.
D. All systems are at the same Cumulative level
Answer: A

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that a fix must be
ordered. Which type of PTF is most appropriate?
A. Fix groups
B. Service packs
C. Individual fixes
D. Cumulative PTF packages
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the purpose of System Managed Access Path Protection (SMAPP)?
A. To prevent excessive I/O queuing when updating access paths
B. To automatically save file access data for security auditing
C. To improve application run time by providing ¯ sho rt cu
to data
D. To reduce recovery time by journaling changes in access path size and location
Answer: B

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is the most likely
cause for the error?
A. The user's profile has been deleted.
B. The user's profile has been disabled.
C. The OMAXSIGN system value is set to 1.
D. The OMAXSGNACN system value is set to 1
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2020-701
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Analyst)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 A company uses Excel workbooks to access IBM Cognos TM1 data over a wide area network. The
company needs to improve the performance of their Excel workbooks which contain multiple slices from
multiple TM1 cubes.
Which two changes will improve performance.? (Choose two.)
A. Convert all DBR() functions to DBRW() functions.
B. Make all DBRW() functions reference a single VIEW function.
C. Convert all DBRA() functions to DBRW() functions.
D. Convert all DBRW() functions to DBR() functions.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 How do you configure a TM1 Web application so that users are not prompted for the TM1 Admin Host
every time they log in?
A. Modify the capability assignments in TM1 Architect.
B. Edit the pmpsvc_config.xml file.
C. Edit the web.config file.
D. Change security on the top-Level application folder from "private" to "public".
Answer: C

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NO.3 What must a TM1 Application Web user do to perform what-if analysis on budget amounts, without
affecting the current version of the data?
A. Export to Cognos Insight.
B. Create a Sandbox.
C. Slice to Excel.
D. Create a scenario.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have entered new planning data into a TM1 Model and all figures are blue. Which statement is
correct?
A. The numbers are in the base cube and need to be submitted before seen by others.
B. The numbers are in the base cube and need to be committed before seen by others.
C. The numbers are in a Personal Workspace and need to be committed before seen by others.
D. The numbers are in a Personal Workspace and need to be saved before seen by others.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You want to create TM1 Excel reports.
What are two methods to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Build from Excel directly
B. Use the Slice to Excel button
C. ExportCognos Insight report to Excel
D. Use the TM1 Excel wizard
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 A TM1 Application Web user has completed data input. Which action allows the user to lock the data for
review?
A. Commit
B. Save
C. Release ownership
D. Submit
Answer: D

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NO.7 Why would you use Rebuild over Recalc in an Active Form?
A. When a conditional format on a report changes
B. When metadata is added to the TM1 model that must be displayed on the row
C. When data changes along the rows of a report
D. When a leaf element is added to a consolidated element of a report
Answer: B

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dimension.
How would you change your model?
A. Change the cube structure using the Group Dimension function.
B. Create a new cube using the Group Dimension function.
C. Change the cube structure using the Combine Dimension function.
D. Create a new cube using the Combine Dimension function.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
In the Assumptions dimension all key figures are formatted correctly as shown in the exhibit, yet all values
are displayed as currency.
Where would you search for the currency format?
A. In the title dimensions
B. In the other row dimension
C. In the column dimensions
D. In the cube format
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NO.10 What are three reasons why you would use Cognos BI Reporting rather than TM1 Web? (Choose
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A. You must merge data from different cube sources.
B. You require bursting of reports.
C. You require different report versions.
D. You require data entry capability.
E. You require highlight capability for reports.
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Code: CAT-280
Exam Name: CA (CA AppLogic r3 Administrator Exam)
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Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-27

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NO.1 Which guidelines will help you to maximize security for the CA AppLogic platform? (Choose
three)
A. Secure private keys with a passphrase.
B. Ensure that only CA AppLogic users have direct access to commodity enterprise servers.
C. When using a global directory service, do not provide access to the implicit local group all .
D. When using a global directory service, check the strength of the passwords used in the service.
E. Use password authentication only for Secure Shell (SSH) access to the Backbone Fabric Controller
(BFC) server.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 The WS_API enables you to perform useful functions, such as:
A. Migrating users from CA AppLogic versions before r3.0.
B. Implementing a WebX4 Linux cluster as an assembly of appliances.
C. Integrating CA AppLogic with CA Access Control to protect your web applications.
D. Invoking commands through the RESTful application programming interface (API).
Answer: D

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NO.3 In CA AppLogic, a class definition consists of a class descriptor and one or more class volumes.
What does a class volume contain?
A. A reference to a storage Logical Unit Number (LUN)
B. All the software required to boot and operate an instance of this class
C. A reference to the IP address or host name of the commodity server on which the object is stored
D. The characteristics of the appliance as a component, including its inputs, outputs, configuration
properties, and their default values and hardware resources
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which step should you perform when you provision the WS_API?
A. Edit the input_template.cfg file.
B. To configure the application, start it immediately after you provision it.
C. Run the vol manage ws_api_instance:data command and edit the vdcs.conf file.
D. When prompted for a password for Secure Shell (SSH) access, enter ws_api_usr.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Before removing a server from the grid or replacing a hard disk, to retrieve any virtual volume
streams off the server, which command should you run?
A. vol clean
B. vol scoop
C. vol migrate
D. vol reinstate
Answer: C

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NO.6 The Backbone Fabric Controller (BFC) should be accessible to all users who will be creating
grids or maintaining the BFC. You should allocate one RFC1918 range to use for backbone addresses.
Which range is valid for this purpose?
A. 12.64.0.0/8
B. 30.128.0.0/32
C. 142.120.0.0/16
D. 192.168.64.0/24
Answer: D

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NO.7 You need to enable your grid servers to PXE boot on the Backbone Fabric Controller (BFC)
network.
Which steps do you need to perform? (Choose two)
A. In System Security, set AC power recovery to OFF.
B. On the power controller setup screen, set IPMI over LAN to off.
C. In the boot settings, enable the backbone NIC to boot before the disk.
D. Enable backbone Network Interface Cards (NICs) to PXE boot in the BIOS.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 When you configure authentication for the Backbone Fabric Controller (BFC):
A. Make sure that all users access the BFC using the BFC shell only.
B. Make sure that the bfcaadmin user has read-only access to the database replica directory.
C. Do not change the default root
password, because this is required for a correct configuration.
D. Add any necessary public SSH keys for users that will access the BFC to the /root/.ssh
/authorized_keys
file.
Answer: D

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NO.9 CA AppLogic is able to:
A. Automatically recover from VN failures with zero downtime.
B. Manage all applications, servers, and storage with an iPad application.
C. Handle server or network hardware failures automatically without data loss.
D. Manage external systems, such as Storage Area Networks (SANs), networks, and grids to redirect
failed applications elsewhere.
Answer: C

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NO.10 In CA AppLogic, which component is used to implement a distributed storage subsystem that
combines the advantages of a global file system with an object store?
A. Global Disk Array (GDA)
B. Global Storage Pool (GSP)
C. Global Access Cache (GAC)
D. Global Volume Store (GVS)
Answer: A,D

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