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Exam Code: C-TSCM42-65
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5
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Exam Code: C-TADM51-731
Exam Name: SAP Certified Technology Associate - System Administration (Oracle DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.31
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NO.1 Where can you find details on the memory consumption of the integrated ITS?
A. Using the ICF service /sap/moni/its/mem
B. In the SAP system, using transaction/report SITSPMON
C. On operating system level, using the command "its -mem"
D. In the SAP system, using transaction SMICM
Answer: B

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NO.2 You would like to install an SAP ECC system. Which of the following components can be
installed in a separate installation procedure? (Choose two)
A. The central instance
B. The database instance
C. An Internet Communication Manager
D. The standalone message server
Answer: A,B

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6. What happens when an Oracle database shuts down? (Choose two)
A. When using the IMMEDIATE option, open transactions are rolled back before the database is shut
down.
B. When using the IMMEDIATE option, an instance recovery is required at the next database startup.
C. When using the NORMAL option, the database system disconnects all users before shutting down
the database.
D. When using the ABORT option, the SAP system is shut down as well.
E. When using the IMMEDIATE option, the database system writes a checkpoint before shutting
down the database.
Answer: A,E

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7. An SAP system's Oracle database has four online redo logs, also known as database
transaction logs. Each online redo log has a mirrored copy.
What is the effect of a log file switch?
A. The ARCH process is triggered to write the current online redo log to its mirrored copy. The next
online redo log is opened for writing.
B. The database switches between writing to the original redo log files and the mirrored redo log
files.
C. The current online redo log is closed and the next online redo log is opened for writing. The ARCH
process is triggered to begin backing up the recently closed redo log.
D. The database alternates between writing to the online and offline redo log files.
Answer: C

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8. You are running an AS ABAP-based SAP system with several instances.
Where are enqueue locks stored that are managed by the AS ABAP system?
A. In the shared memory of each instance
B. In the database of the SAP system
C. In the shared memory of the instance where the enqueue work process is running
D. In the shared memory of the ABAP message server
Answer: C

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9. Which settings are necessary for activating the integrated ITS?
A. Set the profile parameter rdisp/optimize_web_app to 1.
B. Set the profile parameter itsp/enable to 1.
C. Configure the HTML cache of the SAP NetWeaver AS Java.
D. You need to deploy the necessary HTML templates on the operating system level.
Answer: B

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10. Which of the following statements regarding the transaction RZ10 are true?
(Choose two.)
A. When you use the save button in RZ10 and activate the profile, it will be written immediately to
the operating system level.
B. The default profile cannot be maintained using transaction RZ10.
C. The maintained parameters will take effect immediately after the profile is activated in the RZ10.
D. You can compare the profile file on the operating system with the profile in the database.
Answer: A,D

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11. Which of the following does not use SAP NetWeaver?
A. SAP ERP
B. SAP Business All-In-One
C. SAP CRM
D. SAP Business One
Answer: D

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12. The software component SAP ECC 6.0 runs on which of the following?
A. SAP NetWeaver Application Server 7.00
B. SAP Basis 4.6D
C. SAP Web Application Server 6.40
D. SAP NetWeaver Application Server 7.10
Answer: A

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13. For UNDO tablespaces, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The UNDO tablespace MUST be a dictionary managed tablespace.
B. Undo segments are overwritten first after undo retention time.
C. To avoid a tablespace overflow, the UNDO tablespace can be set to be autoextensible.
D. Transformation of rollback- to undo tablespace can be performed with BRSPACE in a one-step
procedure.
E. Storage parameters of all undo segments should be equal.
Answer: B,C

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14. The Oracle database offers different types of indexes.
Which of the following are valid index types? (Choose two)
A. Bitmap index
B. Dictionary index
C. Unique master index
D. Balanced tree (B*tree) index
Answer: A,D

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15. For which of the following do you need to install and configure SAProuter? (Choose two)
A. EarlyWatch Service session done remotely by an SAP Support employee
B. Connection to https://scn.sap.com
C. Remote Consulting from SAP
D. Connection to https://service.sap.com
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 You want to patch the kernel of an AS ABAP+Java-based (dual stack) SAP system.
Into which of the following do you put the new kernel executables?
A. The ABAP kernel directory
B. The Work directory
C. The "KERNEL_NEW" directory
D. The transport directory, subdirectory "Data"
Answer: A

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NO.4 SAP Solution Manager 4.0 can use an SLD (System Landscape Directory). Which statements are
true for the purpose of the SLD?
A. SLD is only available with the shipment of SAP NetWeaver Process Integration (PI).
B. SLD is the landscape-wide information provider for system landscape data and acts as a
foundation of many SAP applications.
C. SLD is a Java application. Therefore, ABAP applications cannot make use of the information
provided by the SLD.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements regarding post-installation activities for SAP ECC 6.0 are
true?
(Choose two.)
A. The installation check verifies the completeness of the installation.
B. Additional space in the database is needed to generate ABAP loads of programs, function
modules, and classes; using transaction SGEN.
C. The newest Support package level is available with the SAP ECC 6.0 installation. Only the SAP
executables (kernel) and the database must be patched after the installation.
D. SAP recommends creating the first client after the installation using client copy profile SAP_CUST.
The source client for the client copy should be client 066.
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: C_TSCM52_66
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Procurement with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6
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NO.1 Which master data is maintained in the SRM system?
A. Business partners
B. Cost centers
C. Purchasing info records
D. Asset master data
Answer: A

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NO.2 Your customer is implementing SRM 7.2 with ECC 6.0 EhP4. What will be required in their
system landscape to create Central Contracts in SRM?
A. SRM-MDM Catalog
B. SAP NetWeaver PI
C. SAP E-Sourcing
D. SAP CLM (Contract Lifecycle Management)
Answer: B

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7. What do you need to consider when replicating master data from SAP ERP to SAP SRM?
A. Customizing objects must be replicated before business objects.
B. Materials and service masters replicated from ERP use the same product type in SRM.
C. IDocs are used to replicate materials from ERP .
D. Units of Measure (UoM) cannot be replicated from ERP using CRM Middleware.
Answer: A

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8. Which of the following are OCI outbound parameters? (Choose two)
A. Logical system
B. URL
C. Business Partner
D. User name
Answer: B,D

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9. Which attribute within the organizational plan specifies the backend system where the
account assignment data is checked?
A. System alias for accounting systems
B. System alias for logical system
C. System alias
D. System alias for vendor
Answer: A

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10. In order to distribute the workload of purchasers, SRM offers the so called automatic
assignment. In this context, which of the following are true?
A. Automatic assignment can be done for External requirements, Purchase Orders or Contracts.
B. The BADI BBP_PFRP_ASSIGN_BADI is used to define rules.
C. Documents can be assigned to purchasing groups that are themselves assigned to different
purchasing organizations
D. One purchase requisition can have multiple lines, each of which is assigned to a different
purchasing group.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 What option in Import Manager is used to map 1 source field to multiple destination fields?
A. Compounding
B. Adding
C. Cloning
D. Renaming
Answer: C

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NO.4 In which implementation are product categories replicated without CRM middleware?
A. SRM 7.2 and ERP 6.0 on one client using classic scenario
B. SRM 7.2 and ERP 6.0 on separate clients using extended classic scenario
C. SRM 7.2 and ERP 6.0 on separate clients using classic scenario
D. SRM 7.2 and ERP 6.0 on one client using extended classic scenario
Answer: A

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NO.5 What controls the transfer of shopping cart follow-on documents from the SRM server to the
backend system?
A. Driver
B. IDoc
C. Dispatcher
D. Spooler
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which step allows the ALE distribution model to be visible on the receiver system?
A. Creation of the model
B. Distribution of the model
C. Generation of the partner profile on the SRM server
D. Generation of the partner profile on the ERP system
Answer: B

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NO.1 What are two of the main functions of the Scopia Video Gateway for Lync? (Choose two.)
A. SIP Presence to Lync client
B. H.323 Presence to Lync client
C. Point-to-point and Multipoint calls between Lync clients and H.323 devices
D. One Click to voicemail
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Is registration to a Gatekeeper or SIP Proxy required when using the Video IVR/Auto Attendant?
A. Yes, it is required.
B. The Video IVR/Auto Attendant can be configured only with registration to a Gatekeeper.
C. The Video IVR/Auto Attendant can be configured only with registration to a SIP Proxy.
D. No, it is not required.
Answer: A

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NO.3 An administrator would like to enable auto-attendant in Scopia Management.
What must the administrator do to ensure that auto-attendant works properly?
A. Restart the Elite MCU
B. Disable auto-attendant on the Elite MCU
C. Enable auto-attendant on the Elite MCU
D. Route auto-attendant to the Elite MCU
Answer: D

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Reference:http://docs.radvision.com/bundle/iv_admin_guide_8 /iv_uc_ms_ag_IVR

NO.4 Which action can a user take when using Scopia Mobile?
A. Participate in the conference as audio only
B. Perform most of the moderating functions of the conference
C. Perform all moderating functions of the conference
D. Share data with other participants
Answer: D

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NO.5 What can you use to control the Scopia XT Telepresence system?
A. You can use the XT remote control for basic functions.
B. You can only use Scopia Control.
C. You can use both the XT remote control and Scopia Control.
D. You can use the XT remote control for all functions.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the default port used by the PathFinder client to register to the Pathfinder server?
A. 443
B. 3089
C. 8080
D. 8443
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.radvision.co.kr/NR/rdonlyres/1D144B1C-FA05-4265-AA4EA516E1D2244E/ 0/
%5C%5Cwww.adobe.com(p.9, first bulleted point)

NO.7 How do you configure an Audio-only service in the MCU?
A. By selecting a service type and deselecting the multimedia option
B. By removing all video codecs from the video codecs table
C. By selecting all audio codecs from the audio codecs table
D. By selecting a service type and checking the "audio only" checkbox
Answer: D

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Reference:https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8 /documents/100173463(p.24)

NO.8 What are two features that Scopia Elite MCUs provide in a video conferencing deployment?
(Choose two.)
A. Continuous Presence
B. Integration to Microsoft Lync
C. Data Collaboration
D. Gatekeeper access
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 What is the output of the following code?
$first = "second";
$second = "first";
echo $$$first;
A. "first"
B. "second"
C. an empty string
D. an error
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the output of the following code?
echo "1" + 2 * "0x02";
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 20
E. 7
Answer: C

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6. What is the output of the following code?
$a = 'a'; $b = 'b';
echo isset($c) ? $a.$b.$c : ($c = 'c').'d';
A. abc
B. cd
C. 0d
Answer: B

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7. What super-global should be used to access information about uploaded files via a POST
request?
A. $_SERVER
B. $_ENV
C. $_POST
D. $_FILES
E. $_GET
Answer: D

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8. What is the output of the following code?
$a = 3;
switch ($a) { case 1: echo 'one'; break; case 2: echo 'two'; break; default: echo 'four'; break; case 3:
echo 'three'; break;
}
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: C

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9. What is the output of the following code?
echo "22" + "0.2", 23 . 1;
A. 220.2231
B. 22.2231
C. 22.2,231
D. 56.2
Answer: B

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10. Which of the following may be used in conjunction with CASE inside a SWITCH statement?
A. A scalar
B. An expression
C. A boolean
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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11. What is the result of the following bitwise operation in PHP?
1

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NO.1 Storage DRS can be enabled and can balance I/O levels based on
A. real-time stats
B. historical stats
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Storage DRS can balance I/O by using storage vMotion. This would be based on historical values for
a period of time. Storage DRS would make decisions based on these figures. If the system were
using realtime stats, the machines could potentially migrate a lot more. This could have an effect on
the latency figures for some systems. The larger historical sampling in storage DRS allows the system
to make a decision with limited risk of impacting I/O-unlike moving a virtual machine over and over
again. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches

NO.2 You are the technical designer for a vSphere platform transformation project. After conducting
SME interviews and using various platform information-gathering methods, you have created a
high-level design document. This document specifies the following: Requirements: R1. The solution
must not have a single point of failure. R2. Production applications must not have an outage of
more than 10 seconds. R3. Data must be based in the UK. R4. There is a 7-year retention policy for
contracts. R5. Applications should support existing and developing workloads for the next 3 years'
growth. Spec of servers: Web 1 vCPU, 2 GB RAM, 100 GB storage App 1 vCPU, 4 GB RAM, 100 Gb
storage DB 2 vCPU, 16 GB RAM, 750 Gb storage At a late stage in the software development life
cycle of a production application developed in- house, an unfortunate issue was identified when the
application was deployed to the production vSphere cluster. The production core stacked switch has
capacity issues, and this is having a serious impact on all applications for which the switch is
providing network services. Within the test system, the application works as intended in the single
test VLAN and with a single-host configuration. Which of the following could be tried to help in this
situation, from a vSphere perspective? (Choose two)
A. Redevelop the application for a virtual platform
B. Place the application into a single-vApp network
C. Add DRS rules to keep network traffic within the same host, where possible
D. Configure network I/O control
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
If you limit the application traffic to a specific dedicated network (that is, a separate VLAN) and
using enforced DRS affinity rules, the application traffic will not traverse the ESXi host's physical
network interfaces. This will ensure that the impact of the application is minimized, while also
ensuring that the application itself is not limited. The application servers already have vCPU settings.
This suggests that the system has already being virtualized in both types of environments. Network
I/O control could be useful in the event of contention, but the role of a designer would be to plan to
prevent contention where possible;
other options would be more beneficial.
In addition, Requirement 5 specifies that the system should work with workloads over the next 3
years. Network I/O control would suggest contention very early in the platform history. Chapter 4,
NetWork - Logical and Physical Design to allow applications to flow
3. Based on the information in the high-level design extract for question 2, which type of data
store would be required?
A. VMFS
B. NFS
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Because fault tolerance would be the only VMware technology that would meet the technical
requirements, VMFS is the only choice here. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical
Approaches
4. A project requirement
A. must be achieved
B. can be set as aspirational but may never be achieved
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A project requirement is a specific deliverable that the business has said must be provided at the
end of a project. It must always be achieved. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical
Approaches
5. The vCenter database is powered off ungracefully, along with a three cluster nodes in a
separate cluster. Will the failed existing ESXi host nodes restart correctly using Auto Deploy?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Auto Deploy enables an untrained IT professional to increase capacity while ensuring
quality and consistency within a cluster. However, there is a dependency on the
vCenter server and Auto Deploy server roles at different times. In this case, the ESXi
hosts have already booted successfully. This means that all subsequent reboots will be
controlled using configuration from the Auto Deploy server, not vCenter. If the
vCenter database is impacted, the ESXi hosts will automatically restore. Even in the
event of no vCenter availability, hosts will use the last-known copy of a distributed
switch or the configured vSphere switch.
Chapter X, Putting it all together
6. A logical diagram shows vendor-specific information.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A logical diagram shows the high-level components of a design or platform.
It may include descriptions such as data flow and entity relationships. However, it does not show
specific vendors (such as Dell or HP).
Chapter 2, Creating the design
7. You are a VMware architect employed to design and build application environments and the
underlying platform for a software development company.
The company is using a "devops" approach and has engaged with you at the beginning of the first
planning meeting/pre-sprint.
The software has yet to be written. However, you have some high-level specifications that are
subject to change at each of the early meetings.
The is more logical for virtual machine sizing.
A. predictive sizing approach based on current software
B. adaptive sizing approach
Answer: B

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Explanation:
There are two types of scaling approaches in virtual platforms:
adaptive and predictive. Both approaches are usable; however, a designer must work out which is
the best approach for each project. The adaptive approach to guest virtual machine design is a
major advantage that virtualization technology brings to a datacenter. It allows a guest virtual
machine to be created initially on a few metrics or high-level requirements (such as a limited budget)
and scaled (that is, grown, not shrunk) through the virtual machine life cycle. In many cases, this
scaling can be performed hot/live without outage/downtime to the running applications. The
predictive approach, on the other hand, requires more planning and research, and you must know
the metrics before deployment. The advantage here is that once the virtual machine has been
deployed, only application maintenance is required. The application requirements are known.
Chapter 5, Design Approaches
8. You are working on a hybrid cloud project, where production applications (yet to be fully
developed) are to be deployed. Which of the following is a project requirement?
A. The production data must be in the UK at all times.
B. The hosting partner provides sufficient resources without overcommitment to support
application load.
C. The hosting provider meets uptime expectations.
D. The development team provides the software on time.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A requirement is a definable and measurable project item. It must be part of the delivery, and its
removal cannot be justified. Chapter 2, Definitions of Key Terms
9. Storage DRS is enabled by default.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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10. Based on the information in the high-level design extract from question 2, what storage
protocol is unsuitable?
A. NFS
B. iSCSI
C. FC
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The requirements state that the application uptime requirements would not be met if using vSphere
HA alone. vSphere HA would
invoke a restart of guest virtual machines after at least 10 seconds. VMware fault tolerance would
meet the uptime
requirements; a failover would result in zero downtime of the application. This technology can be
used only with VMFS; therefore, NFS cannot be used in this design. Chapter 4, NetWork - Logical
and Physical Design to allow applications to flow
11. A logical design can contain which of the following? (Choose three)
A. BIOS settings
B. Data flow
C. Key component relationships
D. High-level diagrams
E. Server host names
Answer: B,C,D

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Explanation:
A logical diagram can be used to show service components and how they relate to each other. A
logical diagram is high level in nature and is independent of the hardware used for a solution.
Chapter 2, Presenting the Data Gathered
12. A best practice can change over time.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A best practice is based on experience with delivering a solution. A new product will
have limited best-practice information except for vendor- or vendor-partner-based
recommendations.
The longer a technology is used in a community, the more
potential success; therefore, best practices can change over time.
Chapter 6, Validation, Thoughts, and Processes
13. When designing a storage platform, which of the following should be considered as part of
the overall design?
A. Capacity
B. I/O requirements of the applications to be supported
C. Disk latency tolerance
D. Growth rate
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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Explanation:
A storage platform logical design requires in-depth analysis of factors that can affect applications.In
the case of storage, aspects that relate to the physical layer-such as the amount of usable space
required for services;
the size, number, and speed of disks; and how fast the data is being produced-could have a
substantial impact to the storage platform. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical
Approaches
14. Only a software vendor develops a standard process or configuration.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A best practice is based on experience with delivering a solution. A new product will have limited
best-practice information except for vendor- or vendor-partner-based recommendations.
The longer a technology is used in a community, the more potential success; therefore, best
practices may be recommended by non-vendor-related people. It is up to a designer to validate this
information rather than ignore it straightaway. Chapter 6, Validation, Thoughts, and Processes
15. Which of the following vSphere cluster technologies would meet the application
requirements specified in the high-level design extract for question 2?
A. FT
B. HA
Answer: A

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Explanation:
vSphere HA would need to wait at least 10 seconds before a restart would be possible. This would
not meet requirements. In the event of a restart, it could be possible to be without the application
feed database for about 15 minutes. VMware FT would enable the service to be provided without
additional redevelopment. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches

OG0-021 Exam PDF, OG0-023 Test Answers

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Exam Code: OG0-021
Exam Name: ArchiMate 2 Part 1 Examination
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NO.1 Which of the following best describes why ArchiMate supports specialization of concepts?
A. It is the only way to model enterprise architecures that are useable and easy to communicate to
the stakeholders
B. It is needed to represent the same concept on different viewpoints
C. It provides extra flexibility, enabling users to customize the language to their own preferences
and needs, while maintaining the underlying precise definition of the concepts
D. It is allowed because without this mechanism it would be impossible to add attributes to
ArchiMate concepts and relations
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following phases of the TOGAF ADM correspond most closely to the ArchiMate
Motivation Extension?
A. Preliminary, Architecture Vision, Requirements Management
B. Opportunities and Solutions, Migration Planning, Implementation Governance
C. Architecture Change Management
D. Business Architecture, Information Systems Architectures, Technology Architecture
Answer: A

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NO.3 Consider the following diagram representing part of a key PRO-FIT capability: self-service
online price quotes for its auto insurance customers:
Which of the following answers best interprets this diagram?
A. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application service that uses four separate application
components
B. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application collaboration that includes four application
components that work together
C. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application component that accesses four different types of
data objects
D. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application component that collaborates with four service
modules
Answer: B

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NO.4 Consider the following diagram:
What does the diagram express about the Underwriting Application?
A. It has three distinct components
B. It processes three different types of data objects
C. It performs three different functions
D. It groups together three components that are not a part of the Underwriting Application
Answer: C

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NO.5 Consider the following symbol, which represents information about a transformation project
at ArchiSurance. Note that premium in this context means the total revenue ArchiSurance receives
from legal services insurance premium payments:
Which of the following statements correctly expresses the meaning of the symbol?
A. ArchiSurance has attributed a 15% increase in premium to the transformation project in 2012
B. The increased premium revenue created by completion of the transformation project will
motivate significant change in the ArchiSurance Legally Yours division
C. ArchiSurance has set a goal to increase legal services premium by 15% in 2012, as compared to
the previous year
D. ArchiSurance has a requirement to increase legal services premium by 15% in 2012
Answer: C

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NO.6 The following diagram shows a typical group of stakeholders: Which ArchiMate viewpoint
abstraction level would support these stakeholders for the purpose of change management?
A. Coherence
B. Designing
C. Details
D. Overview
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements about ArchiMate viewpoint classification is correct?
A. There are three purpose dimensions and three abstraction levels
B. There are two purpose dimensions and three abstraction layers
C. There are four purpose dimensions and two abstraction levels
D. There are three purpose dimensions and four abstraction layers
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which application layer concept is defined as a passive element?
A. Application component
B. Application function r
C. Data object
D. Business object
Answer: C

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Exam Name: IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.1 Implementation
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NO.1 Which log file contains all of the relevant logging data for IBM Security Qradar SIEM V7.1?
A. /var/Iog/qradar.txt
B. /var/Iog/qradar.log
C. /var/Iog/messages
D. /var/Iog/qradar.error
Answer: B

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NO.2 What will happen when a user sets a search as default?
A. The search will be set as the user's default search.
B. All IBM Securily Qradar SIEM V7.1 (QRadar) users will have that search set as their default search.
C. QRadar users will be able to select that search as their default from a list of searches.
D. Only users with permission to view the data in the search results will see the search as an option.
Answer: A

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NO.3 On the Index Management page, what does the value of the Data Written column represent?
A. The total amount of data the indexer has processed.
B. The total amount of data consumed on disk by the index.
C. The amount of data the indexer processed during the selected time range.
D. The amount of data consumed on the disk by the index during the selected time range.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What must be done to obtain a token for an Authorized Service for WinCollect?
A. Select Authorized Service under the WinCollect plug-in
B. Add the service as an Authorized Service in the Admin tab
C. Go to System and License Management and add an Authorized Service
D. Go to Console Settings and add the already configured WinCollect as an Authorized Service
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is a best practice when creating users and assigning roles?
A. For one-off user creation or for a quick task, assign a user to the Admin role.
B. Create a role for each user to make it easy to manage an individual's permissions.
C. To make user management less time-consuming, create general user accounts with broad to
specific permissions that can be shared between staff.
D. Group users with like duties together and create roles with permissions that satisfy their business
requirements; create roles for individuals only in cases of a special permission requirement.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which infrastructure components must be present before installing any of the virtual
appliances?
A. VMware ESX 3.7 with VMware vSphere client 3.9 fix pack 12
B. VMware ESXi 4.0.8 with VMware Workstation 9.0 installed on the desktop
C. VMware ESXi 4.1 with VMware vSphere client 4.1 installed on the desktop
D. VMware Workstation 8.0.4 or above with VMware vSphere client 4.0 installed on the desktop
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are false positive rules?
A. Rules that create offenses that the user should ignore.
B. Rules that have matched could severely impact the environment.
C. Rules that make use of the tests relation And Not. The test that follows this relation, if positively
matched, will be negated and evaluated as not matched.
D. They are mostly made out of building blocks and filtered out events or flows from the Correlation
Rule Engine pipeline using selection criteria that deem the matching events or flows should not
contribute to an offense.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which connection type to the console is required to run qchange_netsetup?
A. Local
B. SSH
C. RDP
D. Telnet
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which graphical tool will help identity additional details about activity on the system, to
isolate the root cause of performance problems?
A. PEX
B. iDoctor
C. Performance Monitor
D. Communications Trace
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer is upgrading an HMC to a new release using Recovery DVD5 for the new release
level. Which action must be completed before performing the upgrade from DVD process?
A. Run the 'HMC Management> Back Up HMC Data' to DVD.
B. Run the 'HMC Management> Save Upgrade Data' to HMC disk.
C. Run the 'HMC Management> Back Up HMC Data' to NFS server.
D. Run the 'HMC Management> Save Upgrade Data' to the administrator's PC.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A batch job runs daily in the QBATCH subsystem with a run priority of 50. The job normally
takes an hour to complete and no other batch jobs run during this time.
The administrator needs to reduce the run time and requests the run priority be lowered to 40.
However1 after the change, run time does not decrease.
What is the likely reason that the run time did not decrease?
A. The run priority applies to only interactive jobs.
B. D82 Symmetric Multiprocessing has not been installed.
C. The run priority represents only the relative importance of the job.
D. The system value QPFRADJ (Performance Adjustment) is set to "No adjustment."
Answer: C

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NO.4 An administrator maintains four image catalogs on a host partition that are used by
network-based virtual optical drives. Periodically, images are added or removed from the catalog
and it must be re-exported.
What is the simplest method to update the share and NES export?
A. Create a CL program.
B. Create a REXX program.
C. Create a Qshell script.
D. Run the statements manually as needed.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Several IBM i partitions at a customer site provide outdated contact information to IBM when
problems are reported. Which command should be used to correct the contact information?
A. CHGSVCCFG
B. CHGCNTINF
C. SNDSRVRQS *UPD
D. WRKCNTINE, option 2
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement describes server firmware delivery that uses PTF5 on a POWER7 system?
A. A single IBM i (57703S1) PTF is ordered to update server firmware.
B. The firmware is ordered using the marker PTF ID, such as MHxxxxx, and is installed with normal
IBM i PTE commands.
C. The server firmware PTE (MFxxxxx) is ordered from the connected HMC and is sent to the service
partition for install.
D. The HIPER PTF group is ordered for the Licensed Internal Code (5770999) and the order is flagged
with Include Firmware Update *YES.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Due to an application problem, management has requested the IPL of a partition running IBM i
7.1. The administrator initiates the IPL, and during the restart phase notices the IPL is running in
manual mode even though the HMC partition settings indicate B NORMAL.
Why is the IPL running in manual mode?
A. The PWRDWNSYS command restart parameter is set to *MANUAL.
B. Manual is the default IPL mode when there is a console problem.
C. The QIPLTYPE system value is set to "Attended IPL, Console in debug mode".
D. Manual is the default IPL mode when the previous system end indicator is abnormal.
Answer: C

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NO.8 A company has just purchased a new POWER7 server running IBM i 7.1 to replace an older
system running V5R4M5. Due to a mistake by a programmer on the V5R4 system, data was
accidently deleted. To recover, the administrator backs up the deleted data to virtual tape on the
7.1 server and attempts to restore it on the V5R4 server. The restore on the V5R4 server fails with a
message stating the data was saved from a more recent release of the operating system.
Which option will solve this problem?
A. Save the data to physical media.
B. Set the target release parameter to V5R4M0 when saving the data.
C. ETP the virtual tape image catalog from the 7.1 server using binary mode.
D. Use the target release parameter *RECOVER and the access path parameter set to VSR4MO.
Answer: B

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NO.1 A team wants to make some attributes mandatory when work items are created. In order to
meet this objective, want can be done in Rational Team Concert ?
A. Work item attributes are all optional by design and there is no way to define mandatory
attributes for work items
B. Add a precondition to the Work Item Save operation to define which fields in a work item must
be filled in before it can be saved
C. Work item attributes are all mandatory by design. Users who create a work item are required to
fill in all the attributes.
D. Add a follow-up action to the Work Item Save operation to define the error message to display
when mandatory attributes are not filled in
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. The Deliver operation copies change sets from the repository workspace to the flow target.
B. The Check-In operation copies files modified from the local sandbox to the repository workspace.
C. The Check-Out operation copies files from the repository workspace into the local sandbox.
D. The Accept operation copies change sets from the flow target into the repository workspace and
local sandbox.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 An organization uses the Formal Project Management process template for a project. Some
work items in the Gantt chart view of an iteration plan for the project are shown in red. What does
red indicate?
A. high severity
B. high priority
C. on the critical path
D. unassigned
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the velocity for a development team following the Scrum process template?
A. the average number of hours the team can deliver in an iteration
B. the average number of stories the team can deliver in an iteration
C. the average number of story points the team can deliver in an iteration
D. the average number of tasks the team can deliver in an iteration
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the main purpose of the work item discussion section?
A. to add notes and exchange information about the work item
B. to assign the owner of the work item
C. to move the work item through its lifecycle to the resolved state
D. to associate a work item with a release
Answer: A

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NO.6 In an iteration plan, which value is represented by the length of the progress bar
A. The amount of work estimated
B. The amount of work completed
C. The amount of work on schedule
D. The amount of active work
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are configurable items for the process template?
A. timelines, iterations, roles, and operational behaviors
B. plugins, cheat sheets, and dependencies
C. Java source code, source comments, and event handlers
D. categories, releases, and access control
Answer: A

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NO.8 When does the RTC SCM detect conflicts? (Choose two.)
A. When incoming and outgoing change sets are coming from the same user
B. When incoming and outgoing change sets include changes to the same file
C. When incoming and outgoing change sets include changes to the same folders
D. When incoming and outgoing change sets are coming from two different users
Answer: B,C

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about automations? (Choose two.)
A. Automations can communicate with each other and run programs on request.
B. Automations support full remote management of process agents from a single console.
C. Automations enable the ObjectServer to process alerts without requiring an operator to take
action.
D. Automations can be used to detect changes in the ObjectServer and to run automated responses
to these changes.
E. Automations provide an interface for defining and manipulating relational database objects such
as tables and views
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 This line is added to the journal tab of a WebGUI tool:
Alert severity is CONVERSION(@Severity)
Assuming the tool is executed on a red event, what will appear in the Journal tab of the event this
tool is run against?
A. Alert severity is 4
B. Alert severity is 5
C. Alert severity is Critical
D. Alert severity is Warning
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the effect of setting these ObjectServer properties prior to starting the ObjectServer?
NHttpd.EnableHTTP : TRUE
NHttpd.ListeningPort : 8080
A. It defines whether the embedded HTTPD server will serve files from its document root.
B. It configures the embedded HTTP server so that the interfaces are active on an HTTP port (8080).
C. It configures the embedded HTTP server so that the interfaces are active on an HTTPS port (8080).
D. IT defines the security realm name of the basic HTTP authentication value that is returned to a
HTTP request in a HTTP(401) response when invalid or no credentials are provided.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which combination of properties can be used to enable an ObjectServer to serve files to a
HTTP client?
A. NHttpd.EnableHTTP , NHttpd.ListeningPort, NHttpd.SSLEnable, NHttpd.SSLListeningPort
B. NHttpd.DocumentRoot, NHttpd.EnableFileServing, NHttpd.AccessLog, NHttpd.EnableHTTP
C. NHttpd.EnableHTTP , NHttpd.ListeningPort, NHttpd.DocumentRoot, NHttpd.EnableFileServing
D. NHttpd.AuthenticationDomain, NHttpd.SSLCertificate, NHttpd.DocumentRoot,
NHttpd.EnableFileServing
Answer: C

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NO.5 An installation of an ObjectServer on Redhat Linux has completed. The ObjectServer has been
set up to use PAM authentication. What must be increased to keep nco_pad from crashing?
A. the poolsize on the nco_pad command
B. the stacksize on the nco_pad command
C. the stackdump size on the nco_pad command
D. the memory space of the parent process to at least 2 GB
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two environment variables are set on a Windows platform following a successful
installation of IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus? (Choose two)
A. NCHOME
B. TlP_HOME
C. OMNIHOME
D. NETCOOL_HOME
E. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which command installs the probes and gateways in IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.4?
A. nco_patch
B. nco_install_obj
C. nco_create_integration
D. nco install integration
Answer: D

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NO.8 The network operation center has two groups of users that use the native desktop. One group,
OPERATIONS, requires access to the standard event management tools like acknowledge and delete.
They also require access to some custom tools for things like basic troubleshooting (ping and telnet)
and ticket creation. The second group, NETWORK, requires access to the same tools used by the
OPERATIONS group users In addition, there are a few tools used for advanced router diagnostics
that they use. These tools are not to be available to the OPERATIONS group users. To minimize
administration efforts a common desktop menu is used for both groups of users.
The users in the OPERATIONS group use Windows desktops to run the native desktop application.
What is the technique used to ensure that they only run tools supported on Windows?
A. no additional configuration is required
B. the OPERATIONS group is configured to limit access to only those tools supported on Windows
C. all of the tools used by the OPERATIONS group are configured to limit access to only Windows
systems
D. all of the menus used by the OPERATIONS group are configured to limit access to only Windows
systems
Answer: C

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