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Exam Code: 250-622
Exam Name: Symantec (Implementation of DP Solutions for UNIX using NBU 5.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 113 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about a media server upgrade installation from version 4.5 to version
5.0? (Choose two.)
A. All clients must be on 5.0 if their media server is on 5.0.
B. All master and media servers must be on NetBackup 5.0.
C. The media servers must be on 4.5 or 5.0 if the clients are on 4.5.
D. The master server can be upgraded to 5.0, and media servers can remain at 4.5.
Answer: CD

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NO.2 You have an MSSQL database that you need to add to your environment. Which three items do you
need toknow before backups can be configured? (Choose three. )
A. the version of MSSQL being used
B. the kind of authentication being used
C. the directories in which the database files are located
D. the backup retentions needed by the DBA
Answer: ABD

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NO.3 Which script is executed to uninstall a VERITAS Maintenance Pack from a UNIX master server?
A. Vrts_pack.uninstall
B. Vrts_patch.uninstall
C. Vrts_pack.install and select Uninstall
D. Vrts_patch.install and select Uninstall
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which command is used to install NetBackup on a UNIX client where rsh is not available?
A. bpcd_install
B. update_clients
C. bpclient_install
D. install_client_files
Answer: D

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NO.5 In preparation for a master server upgrade, you want to launch a backup of the NetBackup catalog.
Which two methods accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. in the GUI, right-click your configured catalog backup policy, and select Manual Backup
B. in the GUI, right-click on Catalog and select Backup NetBackup Catalog
C. from the command line, run bpbackup with appropriate switches
D. from the command line, run bpbackupdb with appropriate switches
Answer: BD

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NO.6 Which three NetBackup processes are running after a successful master server installation? (Choose
three. )
A. bprd
B. bptm
C. bpjobd
D. bpdbm
E. bpdm
Answer: ACD

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NO.7 You are installing NetBackup Database agents into an environment with a high level of change control.
You are using all of the relevant Database agents.Which database forces you to restart the database
though it does not necessarily require rebooting the whole system?
A. Oracle 8i
B. MSSQL 2000
C. Exchange 2000
D. Microsoft Access
Answer:A

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NO.8 You are preparing for the installation of NetBackup on a Solaris system. This will be a Shared Storage
Optionenvironment that consists of one robotic library, two SCSI tape devices, one bridge, and one Fibre
Channelswitch.Which four files do you review to ensure a valid Target and LUN configuration? (Choose
four.)
A. st.conf
B. vm.conf
C. sg.conf
D. sg.links
E. /etc/system
F. devlink.tab
Answer: ACDF

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NO.9 Corporate change control policies require that you have a back out plan before undertaking any
application upgrades. Which two steps could be included in your back out plan for a NetBackup upgrade?
(Choose two.)
A. uninstall the upgraded version of NetBackup and reinstall the older version
B. reinstall the OS and then reinstall the original version of NetBackup
C. use bprecover to recover the preupgrade catalogs from tape
D. use bprestore to recover the preupgrade catalogs from tape
Answer:AC

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NO.10 Which two statements are true about upgrading an existing NetBackup installation to NetBackup 5.0?
(Choose two.)
A. All master and media servers must be on the same revision level.
B. All clients must be on the same revision level as their media servers.
C. A media servers revision level may be one level higher than its clients revision levels.
D. The master server's revision level may be one level higher than the media servers revision level.
Answer: CD

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NO.11 You have been given a NetBackup 5.0 configuration to implement that contains the following operating
systemlevels.Which three are supported by NetBackup? (Choose three. )
A. Microsoft Windows 98
B. Sun Solaris 9
C. IBM OS390
D. HP HP/UX 11i
E. RedHat AS 3.0
Answer: BDE

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NO.12 Which two methods can be used to install NetBackup license keys? (Choose two.)
A. when prompted during the NetBackup software installation
B. after the NetBackup software installation by executing get_license_key
C. after the NetBackup software installation by executing add_license_key
D. after the NetBackup software installation by clicking the Support tab on the NetBackup Administration
Console
Answer:AB

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NO.13 Which two steps are performed to set up a scratch pool? (Choose two.)
A. create a volume pool.
B. add a line in bp.conf: SCRATCH_POOL = SCRATCH
C. create a file called SCRATCH_POOL and type SCRATCH in it
D. mark the checkbox called "Scratch Pool" in the NetBackup Administration Console
Answer:AD

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NO.14 Which two steps are required during the initial installation of a NetBackup master server? (Choose
two.)
A. create volume pools
B. define storage units
C. set up policy schedules
D. enter the server license
E. specify the NetBackup server type
Answer: DE

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NO.15 NetBackup has been installed in a SAN with a shared robot that contains ten drives. However, only four
drives appear as selectable and there are only four unique drive paths in the OS. Which two commands
are used to correct this problem? (Choose two.)
A. tpconfig
B. sg.build
C. tpautoconf
D. sg.install
E. shared_drive_notify
Answer: BD

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NO.16 What are three recommendations for NetBackup media server installation? (Choose three. )
A. You should remove any other vendor backup software.
B. At least one tape drive should be available for backup operations.
C. All NetBackup servers should recognize and be recognized by their client systems.
D. You should make certain that you have a server of a supported hardware type running a supported
version of an OS.
Answer: ACD

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NO.17 Which three determine tape usage when preparing for a NetBackup deployment? (Choose three. )
A. tape type
B. backup window
C. number of fulls
D. number of file systems
E. number of incrementals
Answer:ACE

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NO.18 You need to add a number of Windows servers from another department to your Solaris NetBackup
master server. The system administrator for these systems has given you a Domain Administrator
account and permissionto install the client, but he will not be available to help you. He has not given you
access to the computer room where the systems are physically located.What is the supported method for
installing the client?
A. share the installation CD on the network, log into the systems via a Remote Terminal session, map the
CD andrun setup.exe
B. from the Administration client on the master server select all the remote clients in Host Properties,
right-click,and select Remote Client Install
C. log in to any Windows system on the domain as the domain administrator, run Launch.exe on the
installation CD and install to network clients
D. remote installation to Windows clients is not allowed from a UNIX Master; the system administrator will
haveto give you physical access to the clients.
Answer: C

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NO.19 You are installing the NetBackup for SQL Agent. What must be current for communication to take
place between NetBackup and the SQL database?
A. ODBC
B. TCP/IP
C. Internet Explorer
D. Windows Service Pack
Answer:A

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NO.20 A moderately used database server must be configured as a NetBackup client. The database
application is custom built and is not covered by a NetBackup database agent. The server is in production
around-the-clock.Backups must not interrupt production, and open files must be backed up. The DB data
exists on SAN attacheddisks, though available disk space is scarce. Which of the following backup
methods would best fit this scenario?
A. Copy-on-write snapshot
B. Mirror snapshot
C. VERITAS Snapshot Provider enabled backup
D. Block level incremental backups
Answer:A

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Exam Code: ST0-47W
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas NetBackup 6.5 for Windows (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 On which two types of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 servers can the Enterprise Media Manager (EMM) be
installed? (Select two.)
A. Master Server
B. Media Server
C. Administration Server
D. Media and Device Server
Answer: AB

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NO.2 Which two disk-based features support data de-duplication? (Select two.)
A. SAN Disk
B. Flexible Disk
C. OpenStorage Disk
D. PureDisk Storage
Answer: CD

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NO.3 The customer runs the Images on Media report to obtain a list of backup images that are on the tape
volume XYZ001.
Which NetBackup Master Server service/process maintains the catalog from which this report is derived?
A. NetBackup Jobs Database Manager
B. NetBackup Service Layer
C. NetBackup Job Manager
D. NetBackup Database Manager
Answer: D

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NO.4 The backup of a particular client system fails with a status code 49 - 'Client did not start'.
For which process do you need to create and check the debug log?
A. bptm
B. bprd
C. bpbkar
D. bpdbm
Answer: C

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NO.5 The backup of a client is not running at the expected time, based upon a specific backup policy and
schedule.
Which Veritas NetBackup 6.5 service/process is responsible for the worklist that contains the entry for this
job and for the initiation of the job, based upon the 'due' time of the job?
A. NetBackup Policy Execution Manager
B. NetBackup Job Manager
C. NetBackup Jobs Database Manager
D. NetBackup Backup and Restore Manager
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is OpenStorage?
A. the new Symantec physical disk array
B. the software layer that interfaces with any type of disk
C. the Veritas NetBackup 6.5 service that manages disks
D. a new term for a Veritas NetBackup 6.5 Disk Storage Unit
Answer: B

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NO.7 Where can you find and access a full list of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 product documentation?
A. under the Help tab in any window of the NetBackup NOM console
B. in the Help (Windows) or hlp (UNIX/Linux) directories on the Master Server
C. online on the Symantec Corporation Support website
D. on any host that has NetBackup component(s) loaded, through the global Help function
Answer: C

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NO.8 In Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup policy?
A. a set of associations defining which Backup Creation Wizard will run with which clients
B. a schedule defining when a given backup will execute its full or incremental sessions
C. a list of parameters that define the details of how a given backup will be performed
D. a list of clients to be backed up and how long the backup can run
Answer: C

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NO.9 For Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup image?
A. a complete copy of an existing backup to tape media (from a disk staging unit or tape media)
B. the subset of NetBackup 6.5 catalog metadata that describes and precisely locates the data from one
client
C. all backup data that is backed up from one client in a single stream during a specific backup session
D. a full backup of the data from one client, plus the Bare Metal Restore system image from that same
client
Answer: C

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NO.10 A Veritas NetBackup 6.5 client system requests a user-initiated backup by sending a request to port
13720 of the configured Master Server system.
Which Veritas NetBackup service or process receives this request?
A. bpdbm
B. bprd
C. nbpem
D. nbjm
Answer: B

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NO.11 An administrator wants to use the capacity-based licensing model. There are 50 clients, each with
50Gb of data that must be backed up. Ten of the clients are database servers.
What is the correct specification for determining the license configuration?
A. 5 Front End Terabytes, 40 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
B. 1 Enterprise Server, 40 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
C. 2.5 Front End Terabytes, 50 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
D. 5 Back End Terabytes, 50 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which feature of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 allows backup data to be encrypted at no additional cost?
A. Media Server Encryption
B. NDMP Encryption
C. Client Encryption
D. EMM Server Encryption
Answer: C

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NO.13 What are two benefits of using OpenStorage to manage and control the use of disk-based storage by
Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. A Storage Unit can be configured to fail over from a Disk Pool to tape.
B. Multiple Media Servers can access and share a Disk Pool.
C. A Data Pool can be created, which allows load balancing of both tape and disk.
D. Load balancing can be performed across the Media Servers for a Disk Pool.
Answer: BD

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NO.14 Which two are internal databases used by Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. NDMP File database
B. Image database
C. Topology database
D. EMM database
E. Encrypted Media database
Answer: BD

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NO.15 What is it called when an administrator sets up a set of disk volumes that can then be assign to
specific Media Servers, Policies, or Storage Units?
A. OpenStorage
B. Disk Pool
C. Volume Pool
D. Disk Storage Unit
Answer: B

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NO.16 An administrator wants to back up a VMware virtual machine using the VMware Consolidated Backup
(VCB)interface.
Which component is required to enable VCB backups?
A. Database and Application Pack
B. Enterprise Client
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Workstation Client
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which statement is true about Veritas NetBackup 6.5 Data Classifications?
A. They control the execution of backups.
B. They schedule client backups.
C. They can be used to bias the deletion of backup images.
D. They are service level agreements.
Answer: C

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NO.18 An environment already has two robots configured, and the NetBackup Administration Console is being
used to configure a new IBM TLD-type robot. Which name is given to the new robot by default?
A. TLD(2)
B. ROBOT_3
C. TLD(3)
D. IBM.TLD.3
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which two components/options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 include the Bare Metal Restore (BMR) Client?
(Select two.)
A. Standard Client
B. Bare Metal Restore Client
C. Enterprise Client
D. Desktop and Laptop Client
E. Database and Application Pack
Answer: AC

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NO.20 What are three options for locating and viewing Veritas NetBackup 6.5 manuals and other
documentation? (Select three.)
A. NetBackup 6.5 media set (the CD-ROMs and/or DVD-ROMs)
B. documentation files in /opt/openv/goodies/hlp (UNIX/Linux)
C. hard copy documentation provided with NetBackup 6.5
D. online on the Symantec Corporation Support website
E. help files in C:\Program Files\Veritas\NetBackup\goodies\help (Windows)
Answer: ACD

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NO.21 The nbproxy process communicates and queries which Veritas NetBackup 6.5 component?
A. Enterprise Media Manager
B. Database Manager
C. Robotic Control Service
D. Automatic Volume Recognition daemon
Answer: B

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NO.22 Which two cause the Policy Execution Manager to modify the Next Due Jobs worklist? (Select two.)
A. when Enterprise Media Manager initiates a request to modify the worklist
B. when a backup policy is added, modified, or removed
C. when a job is initiated and completed
D. when a user initiated backup is requested
Answer: BC

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NO.23 What are two features of the Flexible Disk Option? (Select two.)
A. shared disk
B. de-duplication
C. replication
D. advanced disk
Answer: AD

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NO.24 In a customer's Veritas NetBackup 6.5 environment, the Master Server is host A, the Enterprise Media
Manager (EMM) Server is host B, the only configured Media Server is host C, and Client systems are host
D through host Z. The customer has encountered a problem performing a standard restore operation of
host D from the tape on which the backup was written and was directed by Symantec support to enable
debug logging for the bpbrm process.
On which Veritas NetBackup 6.5 system would this debug log be enabled?
A. NetBackup Master Server (host A)
B. NetBackup EMM (host B)
C. NetBackup Media Server (host C)
D. NetBackup Client (host D)
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which two purchased options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 enable the additional features found in the
Enterprise Disk Foundation? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Client Option
B. Advanced Vault Option
C. VCB Integration Option
D. OpenStorage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: DE

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NO.26 Which three features are included in the Standard Infrastructure capacity tier? (Select three.)
A. Library Based Tape Drive
B. OpenStorage Option
C. Vault Option
D. Shared Storage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: ACD

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NO.27 What is the purpose of the nbproxy process?
A. It facilitates communication between the Master Server and the client.
B. It provides communication between multi-threaded processes and PBX.
C. It facilitates communication between the Master Server and the Media Server.
D. It provides communication between multi-threaded processes and single-threaded processes.
Answer: D

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NO.28 What is the purpose of the nbdb_ping command in Veritas NetBackup 6.5?
A. to determine if a Media Server has connectivity to the EMM database
B. to check the health and status of the Sybase ASA database
C. to create a roll-back checkpoint in the NetBackup Binary database
D. to run a simple handshake test between the Master and all Media Servers
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which two statements are true about the PBX communication facility used in Veritas NetBackup?
(Select two.)
A. PBX is used when legacy (pre-6.x) processes need to communicate with new (6.x) NetBackup
processes.
B. PBX is used for all tape library command streams in NetBackup 6.5 and above.
C. PBX is used for NetBackup 6.0 and above for all interprocess communication.
D. PBX is used for all disk array snapshot facility command streams in NetBackup 6.5 and above.
Answer: AC

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NO.30 A Veritas NetBackup 6.5 environment uses a multi-tiered architecture.
Which system functions as the first tier?
A. Media Server
B. NetBackup Operations Manager (NOM) Server
C. Enterprise Client
D. Master Server
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ST0-029
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 161 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 What are three features of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Select three.)
A. Application Performance Management
B. Client Firewall
C. Application and Device Control
D. Endpoint Change Control
E. Intrusion Prevention
Answer: BCE

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of clients that a single Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager can
support?
A. 25,000
B. 50,000
C. 75,000
D. 100,000
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the relationship of Symantec Network Access Control to Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. Symantec Network Access Control is completely integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0
and cannot be installed alone.
B. Symantec Network Access Control is a part of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but is not enabled
unless a separate license is purchased.
C. Symantec Network Access Control is not part of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but does not
interfere with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 components.
D. Symantec Network Access Control works with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but uses a different
management console and installation process.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which Symantec Network Access Control Enforcer can be deployed as either a software plug-in or as
an appliance?
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Gateway Enforcer
C. Self Enforcement
D. DHCP Enforcer
Answer: D

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NO.5 When using the Push Deployment wizadr, which two methods can you use to identify the target
machines to which you want to install the Symantec Endpoint Protection client? (Select two.)
A. browse through Windows Networking
B. import a file containing IP addresses
C. specify a UNC path
D. import a file containing MAC addresses
E. import hostnames from an LDAP server
Answer: AC

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NO.6 Which two do you need in order to add a Replication Partner? (Select two.)
A. local domain user and password
B. administrator name and password
C. local domain administrator name and password
D. replication server name and port
Answer: BD

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NO.7 Which parameter is unique to each Symantec Endpoint Protection client?
A. CUID
B. GUID
C. SUID
D. RUID
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 client administration?
A. The administration console for Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 has been updated to resemble
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
B. Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 centralized administration is now provided exclusively through
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
C. The administration console for Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 now includes fields and options
that require that Network Threat protection is enabled.
D. Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 can now be administered through either its own console or the
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
Answer: B

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NO.9 How does Symantec Endpoint Protection use Unmanaged Detector to find unmanaged devices on the
network?
A. It compares MAC addresses to a list of known hosts.
B. It receives logon failures notifications from an LDAP server.
C. It pings clients on port 80 to trigger a response from managed clients.
D. It attempts to make http connections with clients in an address range.
Answer: A

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NO.10 How many client installation packages are required to install Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 with
all available components?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: A

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NO.11 Upon which convention are custom Symantec Endpoint Protection Intrusion Prevention signatures
based?
A. Generic Exploit Blocking
B. Cisco IDS
C. SNORT
D. Tripwire
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which component must be installed prior to installing Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. Apache Tomcat Server
B. Microsoft Internet Authentication Server (IAS)
C. Microsoft Internet Information Server (IIS)
D. Sun Java Runtime Environment (JRE)
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two statements describe the interactions between Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 and
Quarantine Server? (Select two.)
A. Clients upload log data and quarantined files to Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager, which
forwards the files to the Quarantine Server.
B. Clients upload log data to Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager and upload quarantined files to
Quarantine Server.
C. Clients upload log data and quarantined files to the Quarantine Server, which forwards the log data to
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.
D. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager sends quarantine policies, which define the location of the
Quarantine Server, to managed clients.
E. The Quarantine Server sends its location and quarantine policies and rules to all clients.
Answer: BD

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NO.14 How do requirements for installing Symantec Network Access Control relate to installing various
components of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. It does NOT install on any host that is used as either the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager or a
Group Update Provider.
B. It installs in the same client package as all of the Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 components.
C. It does NOT install on any client unless Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 is installed.
D. It installs and is automatically enabled when the Network Threat Protection component of Symantec
Endpoint Protection 11.0 is installed on any client.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which two roles can Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager assign to managed clients? (Select two.)
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Group Update Provider
C. Unmanaged Detector
D. Database Replicator
Answer: BC

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NO.16 What is a benefit of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. A single client provides all functions, which reduces the resource usage footprint.
B. Solaris is a supported platform for the client.
C. The number of required management consoles is reduced from five to three, which simplifies
administration compared to previous versions.
D. Proactive Threat Protection runs in real-time.
Answer: A

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NO.17 On which two operating systems can you install Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager? (Select
two.)
A. Microsoft Windows Vista Ultimate
B. Microsoft Windows NT Server
C. Microsoft Windows XP Professional
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
Answer: CD

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NO.18 Which two high-level components make up the Symantec Endpoint Protection solution? (Select two.)
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection
B. Symantec Critical System Protection
C. Symantec Security Information Manager
D. Symantec Network Access Control
Answer: AD

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NO.19 Where can you determine what content updates are available on the Symantec Endpoint Protection
Manager?
A. Home page
B. Monitors page
C. Clients page
D. Admin page
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which two external databases does Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager support? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
B. MySQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
D. Oracle Database 11g
Answer: AC

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NO.21 Symantec released a new version of Symantec Endpoint Protection client software. An administrator
needs to find out what versions of Symantec Endpoint Protection are currently in the network.
Which report provides this information?
A. Application and Device Control Report
B. System Report
C. Compliance Report
D. Computer Status Report
Answer: D

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NO.22 From where does the Migration and Deployment wizadr collect settings?
A. configuration file
B. Symantec Client Firewall Administrator
C. Symantec AntiVirus server
D. Active Directory server
Answer: C

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NO.23 A company is interested in making sure that their remote VPN users have compliant systems before
joining the corporate network.
Which two Symantec Network Access Control methods are recommended? (Select two.)
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Gateway Enforcer
C. Self Enforcement
D. DHCP Enforcer
Answer: BC

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NO.24 Which failover option is available in Symantec Endpoint Protection?
A. One manager can fail over between two databases in a single site.
B. One client can fail over between two managers in a single site.
C. One manager can fail over to another Group Update Provider.
D. One client can fail over between two databases in separate sites.
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which two statements are true about Symantec Network Access Control? (Select two.)
A. It is integrated into Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, with a shared management console and a
single shared client.
B. It is partially integrated into Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, with a shared management console
and compatible clients.
C. It is integrated into and included with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but requires an additional
license to enable the network access control features.
D. It is on the roadmap to be integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 in a future maintenance
pack release.
E. It is not integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, although both clients may be installed on
any supported host without any operational issues.
Answer: AC

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NO.26 What is the maximum number of clients that the embedded database can support?
A. 1,000
B. 2,000
C. 3,000
D. 5,000
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which two are characteristics of Proactive Threat Protection? (Select two.)
A. detects unknown threats
B. inspects encrypted network traffic
C. evaluates process behavior
D. blocks attacker's IP address
Answer: AC

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NO.28 In which group can you NOT create new subgroups?
A. Global
B. Subgroup
C. Temporary
D. Administrator-created
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which four events trigger an Auto-Protect scan? (Select four.)
A. create
B. open
C. archive
D. move
E. rename
F. run
Answer: ACDF

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NO.30 Which Symantec Network Access Control method supports basic and transparent mode for 802.1x?
A. Gateway Enforcer
B. Self Enforcement
C. DHCP Enforcer
D. LAN Enforcer
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ST0-067
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 In Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0, if an administrator wants to evaluate assets compared to a
referenced asset, what is used?
A. reference evaluation
B. baseline standard
C. gold standard
D. policy mapping
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which term refers to organizational rules or requirements that provide guidance to employees?
A. framework
B. standard
C. policy
D. benchmark
E. regulation
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which three database maintenance tasks must be performed outside of Symantec Control Compliance
Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. purge evidence
B. back up the databases
C. purge stale data
D. shrink the databases
E. defragment the databases
Answer: BDE

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NO.4 A user-defined report template is created from a predefined report template.
When a user-defined report template is deleted, what happens to the predefined report template?
A. The predefined template is also deleted.
B. The predefined template is automatically updated with the latest changes.
C. The predefined template is unaffected.
D. The predefined template reverts to the original template.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Communications between Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 (CCS 9.0) components rely on a
signed digital certificate.
What is the root certificate authority in the CCS 9.0 environment?
A. Microsoft Certificate Authority Server
B. Certificate Management Console Server
C. CCS Management Service
D. Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.6 When does the RMS Console Configuration Wizard appear? (Select two.)
A. every time a new license has been added
B. the first time that a user opens the console after the installation or the upgrade
C. after a new Credential database has been applied to the user
D. after a bv-Control snap-in installation on the console computer
E. after the user has changed their default information server
Answer: BD

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NO.7 Which two are modules of Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select two.)
A. Standards
B. bv-Control
C. ESM
D. Internet Security
E. Entitlements
Answer: AE

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NO.8 Which information is displayed in the Monitor View?
A. jobs and reports
B. jobs and evaluation results
C. tasks and reports
D. data collections and evaluation results
Answer: B

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NO.9 What needs to be configured in order to collect common fields during a asset import using the default
data collector?
A. ESM data collector
B. CSV data collector
C. Automatic Entitlements Import job
D. a policy with associated assets
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which term refers to rules created by a government in response to legislation?
A. framework
B. standard
C. policy
D. benchmark
E. regulation
Answer: E

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NO.11 Which three are components of the Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. web portal
B. Evidence database
C. ESM database
D. Cognos
E. application server
Answer: ABE

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NO.12 Which two benefits does the Policy Module provide? (Select two.)
A. determines coverage gaps for multiple, overlapped regulatory, industry-specific, or best practices
frameworks
B. lowers the cost of policy creation and maintenance and measures policy knowledge and retention
C. defines, reviews, and disseminates written policies to end users as mapped to specific measurable
controls
D. integrates the policy compliance process with existing asset management systems
E. identifies problems within policies or internal controls and prevents policy compliance failure or data
breach
Answer: AC

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NO.13 Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 component is responsible for most inter-component
transactions?
A. Directory Support Service
B. Data Processing Service
C. Information Server Service
D. Application Server Service
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which three functions are provided by Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. provides the ability to attest to procedural controls
B. uses automated agentless or agent-based capabilities to audit and scan technical controls
C. verifies and confirms risk and posture compliance assessment
D. produces evidence of due care in an IT audit process
E. integrates the remediation process
Answer: ABD

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NO.15 Data can be collected using which two data collectors in Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0?
(Select two.)
A. ESM
B. XML
C. ODBC
D. CSV
E. AS400
Answer: AD

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NO.16 Which four bv-Control platforms are supported in Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 Standards?
(Select four.)
A. Oracle
B. Windows
C. UNIX
D. Exchange
E. SQL
F. NetWare
Answer: ABCE

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NO.17 Which databases are created by Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 Reporting and Analytics
during installation?
A. Production, Reporting, Evidence
B. bv, Compliance Manager, Policy Manager
C. Dashboard, Reporting, SMC
D. Evidence, Standards, Policies
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is the minimum number of computers required to configure each Data Processing Service role?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

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NO.19 In the context of IT compliance, what are standards?
A. a set of generally accepted best practices
B. a protector against a specific risk or threat
C. statements of goals and objectives
D. a collection of methods to evaluate compliance efforts
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 component is responsible for routing data collection,
evaluation, and reporting jobs?
A. application server
B. collector
C. load balancer
D. Management Service
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-91W
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Windows(STS))
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Total Q&A: 250 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 An administrator is checking the status of a standalone drive in the Device Monitor. The Control column
status is AVR and the Ready column status is No.
What does this indicate?
A. The drive is down.
B. The drive is up and under operator control.
C. The drive is up and it is empty.
D. The drive is up, but the tape in the drive is busy.
Answer: C

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NO.2 In a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment, where does the image database reside?
A. within the EMM database
B. on the media server
C. on the master server
D. within the master server's Sybase database
Answer: C

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NO.3 A collection of all backup data from a client is assembled into a single stream and written to tape or
disk.
What is this called?
A. file metadata
B. backup policy
C. catalog .f file
D. backup image
Answer: D

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NO.4 A request is made to change volume residences.
Which two conditions must be met in the volume group that is associated with the changes? (Select two.)
A. All volumes in a volume group must have the same residence.
B. All volumes must have barcode labels.
C. All volumes must be assigned to scratch pool.
D. All volumes must be vaulted before adding volumes to the group.
E. All volumes must have the same media type.
Answer: AE

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator needs to restore an individual file that was accidentally deleted from a server.
When selecting the backup images for a restore, the folders listed in the left-pane window are greyed out.
When selecting one of these folders, the list of files on the right-pane window is empty even though files
have been backed up from this folder in the past.
What can the administrator do to restore individual files in the Backup, Archive, and Restore interface?
A. The administrator needs to login to a system, such as the master server, that has permissions to run
the restore job.
B. The media with the data needs to be placed into the tape library, then the library needs to be
inventoried.
C. The media with the restore data is encrypted and the password needs to be supplied.
D. The restore needs to be changed from a true image backup to a normal backup.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which version of NetBackup client (at a minimum) is required to use Symantec NetBackup
LiveUpdate?
A. 6.0 GA
B. 6.0 MP4
C. 6.5 GA
D. 7.0 GA
Answer: C

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NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
In the exhibit, the server_data policy is greyed out and marked with a red "X."
What does this indicate?
A. The policy is using a FlashBackup policy, but the Enterprise client is unlicensed.
B. The policy is using an AdvancedDisk storage unit, but the Flexible Disk option is unlicensed.
C. The policy's "go into effect" date is disabled or set to a date in the future.
D. A backup run from this policy recently failed and the status is in the Activity Monitor.
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator needs to back up a Windows 2003 client and creates a backup selections list that
includes the System_State directive.
What happens when the backup runs?
A. The backup runs successfully.
B. The job is partially successful. All files are backed up except the system state.
C. The backup fails. None of the files are backed up because Shadow Copy Components is required for
Windows 2003 clients.
D. The backup fails. None of the requested files are backed up because Shadow Copy Components is
required for Windows 2003 clients.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two types of storage will be used when a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 policy uses "Any Available"
for policy storage? (Select two.)
A. BasicDisk and AdvancedDisk storage units
B. Media Manager and NDMP storage units
C. storage units with the "On Demand Only" option disabled
D. storage unit groups
E. storage units with available media
Answer: CE

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NO.10 Which two databases are used by Symantec NetBackup 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Media
B. Image
C. Volume
D. EMM
E. Device
Answer: BD

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NO.11 Which two calculations are required to size the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 catalog for a new installation?
(Select two.)
A. divide number of files by retention period
B. multiply number of files per backup by number of backups per retention period
C. multiply number of backups per day by number of clients
D. multiply number of files by average length of file names
E. divide full backups by retention period
Answer: BD

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NO.12 In which two processes does Symantec NetBackup 7.0 rehydrate deduplicated data? (Select two.)
A. Optimized duplication
B. Duplicate copy to tape
C. Restore to an OpenStorage device
D. Replicated copy
E. Restore to a client
Answer: BE

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NO.13 An administrator needs to back up a file system with millions of files in the shortest amount of time.
Which option should be used?
A. enable "Compression" in the policy
B. use the FlashBackup policy type
C. enable "Collect True Image Restore" in the policy
D. use the AFS policy type
Answer: B

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NO.14 If frequency-based cleaning of a drive is desired, which parameter must be set in the Symantec
NetBackup 7.0 administration console?
A. Cleaning Frequency (Between mounts)
B. Cleaning Frequency (In GB)
C. Cleaning Frequency (Between backups)
D. Cleaning Frequency (In hours)
Answer: D

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NO.15 The Symantec NetBackup Startup and Shutdown commands on Windows are "bpup" and "bpdown"
In which directory can these commands be found?
A. install_path\NetBackup\bin
B. install_path\NetBackup\bin\admincmd
C. install_path\NetBackup\bin\support
D. install_path\NetBackup\bin\goodies
Answer: A

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NO.16 A company installed Symantec NetBackup 7.0 on existing Windows 32-bit servers with 2 GB of RAM.
When configuring the Media Server Deduplication Option (MSDP), an error occurs.
What should be done to resolve this error?
A. add additional memory to the Symantec NetBackup servers
B. uninstall Symantec NetBackup and upgrade the servers to Windows 64-bit
C. run nbdevconfig to configure the storage servers
D. cluster the existing Symantec NetBackup servers and reconfigure the MSDP
Answer: B

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NO.17 An administrator configures two standalone LTO4 tape drives on a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 media
server with an existing tape library with an LTO4 drive.
How should the administrator configure the storage units?
A. place each standalone drive in its own storage unit
B. place the two standalone drives in a single new storage unit
C. place the two standalone drives in an existing storage unit with the other LTO4 drives
D. place the two standalone drives in a new storage unit group
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which command provides a list of disk pools required for restoring a client?
A. nbdevquery
B. bpimagelist
C. vmquery
D. bpdiskinfo
Answer: B

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NO.19 Catalog configuration can be configured to email which file to aid in catalog recovery?
A. BMR file
B. master server config file
C. support script output
D. DR file
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which Symantec NetBackup 7.0 volume pool is created by default?
A. Data
B. Scratch
C. None
D. Catalog
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-099
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 9.0(STS))
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Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 An administrator is setting up Exchange managed folders and needs to apply the same retention
settings to Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Which action needs to happen to force EV 9
to synchronize the managed folder retentions?
A. in Desktop Folder policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to
Normal
B. in Desktop policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
C. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
D. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Normal
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which feature delegation must be set to Read/Write in Internet Information Services (IIS 7.0) before
installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Web Access (OWA) Extensions?
A. .NET Trust Levels
B. .NET Roles
C. Failed Request Tracing Rules
D. IPv4 Address and Domain Restrictions
Answer: D

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NO.3 A large enterprise organization requires Enterprise Vault Operations Manager. The company will have
five Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) sites and three EV Directories. How many
monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.4 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. On which context menu in the Vault Admin Console does the administrator set and clear the
vault store backup mode?
A. the Enterprise Vault database
B. the Enterprise Vault services
C. the Enterprise Vault server
D. the Enterprise Vault site
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are two physical data storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for
Exchange? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store Group
D. Vault Store Partitions
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: A, D

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NO.6 Refer to the exhibit.
On the Exchange Policy Properties page, which two items will be archived using the policy shown in the
exhibit? (Select two.)
A.all items older than four weeks
B. all items larger than 1 MB
C. all items older than four weeks and larger than 1 MB
D. all items older than three months
E. all items older than four weeks and smaller than 1 MB
Answer: C, D

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NO.7 An organization needs to move all PST files into Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9).
Their users require constant access to their PST files during the migration. What is the recommended
migration method?
A. Client-Driven PST Migration
B. Locate and Migrate PST Migration
C. PST Migration Wizard
D. EVPM Scripted Migration
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the minimum version of the .NET framework required on the Enterprise Vault Server for
Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange?
A. .NET 4.0
B. .NET 3.5 SP1
C. .NET 1.1 and 2.0
D. .NET 2.0 and 3.0 SP2
Answer: B

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NO.9 An organization enables Outlook Anywhere (RPC over HTTP) for mobile users so users can retrieve
archived email through Outlook without being connected to a VPN. When end users who use this new
functionality try to restore an item, they are no longer prompted for where they want the item to be
restored. What is the reason for this change in behavior?
A. The system administrator has disabled custom restore locations in the policy.
B. The Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Add-In is using HTTP-only functionality.
C. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable User Extensions.
D. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable Offline Vault.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange converts mail message attachments to text or HTML. What
is a benefit of changing the default conversion type to text instead of HTML for certain document types
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. increases the performance of searching
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

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NO.11 An organization is debating which Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook client to deploy
to end users. Which two features can be used if the HTTP-only Outlook Add-In is deployed? (Select two.)
A. Users can choose which archives to store items in.
B. Users can restore items to the Restored Items folder.
C. Users can use Vault Cache.
D. Users can cancel Pending Items.
E. Users can store and classify items with retention categories.
Answer: C, D

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NO.12 An administrator is installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Where should the
administrator place the EV 9 databases and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which information is held in the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) Directory Database?
A. archived items
B. configuration data for an EV 9 site
C. configuration information of indexed data
D. storage location of single instanced items
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which task needs to be running for a PST Client-Driven Migration to be successful?
A. PST Client Task
B. PST Locator Task
C. PST Migrator Task
D. PST Collector Task
Answer: C

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NO.15 Provided that appropriate options are set for users, which two actions can users perform on the Details
tab of the Vault Cache Properties dialog box? (Select two.)
A. view header and content synchronization status
B. start synchronization
C. disable synchronization
D. reverse synchronization
E. edit header and content synchronization categories
Answer: A, B

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NO.16 An administrator needs to migrate a large number of PST files located in users' Outlook profiles and on
a shared drive. Which two PST migration methods will accomplish this? (Select two.)
A. Client-Driven Migration
B. Server-Driven Migration
C. PST Migration Wizard
D. Locate-Migrate Wizard
E. Automatic Migration
Answer: A, B

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NO.17 A company is considering Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange for archiving their Exchange
systems. Personnel at the company are having trouble understanding the differences between their
existing backup environment and a separate archiving environment. Which two differentiate archiving
from a backup system? (Select two.)
A. provides retention periods for individual sets of data
B. requires operator intervention to perform a data restore request
C. provides duplicate copies for disaster recovery purposes
D. ingests data from the Exchange store to the archive storage layer
E. enables fast restore capabilities for mission critical data
Answer: A, D

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NO.18 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. In order to perform a point-in-time recovery of the database, what must be backed up daily?
A. the EnterpriseVaultDirectory SQL database
B. the SQL transaction logs
C. the SQL databases
D. the EnterpriseVaultAuditing SQL database
Answer: B

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NO.19 What are two benefits of enabling Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) for Outlook Web
Access users? (Select two.)
A. offloads Archiving Task from EV 9 server
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. enables remote access to archived public folder items
D. extracts mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV 9 services
Answer: B, C

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NO.20 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. The administrator has yet to run a backup of the vault store partition. The administrator has
Safety Copy enabled for the Vault Store. Given that the administrator has already performed some
mailbox archiving, what should occur after running the backup for the first time and clearing the archive
bit?
A. The safety copies are removed from the Exchange store.
B. The safety copies are removed from the storage queues.
C. The safety copies are flagged for removal for the next Storage Expiry.
D. The safety copies are flagged for removal when the services are restarted.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Requests for Web-based resources have become unacceptably slow. You have been assigned to
implement a solution that helps solve this problem. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. Enablestateful multi-layer inspection on the packet filter
B. Implement caching on the network proxy server
C. Enable authentication on the network proxy server
D. Implement a screening router on the network DMZ
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is considered to be the most secure default firewall policy, yet usually causes the
most work from an administrative perspective?
A. Configuring the firewall to respond automatically to threats
B. Blocking all access by default, then allowing only necessary connections
C. Configuring the firewall to coordinate with the intrusion-detection system
D. Allowing all access by default, then blocking only suspect network connections
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following organizations provides regular updates concerning security breaches and
issues?
A. IETF
B. ISO
C. ICANN
D. CERT
Answer: D

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NO.4 Irina has contracted with a company to provide Web design consulting services. The company has
asked her to use several large files available via an HTTP server. The IT department has provided Irina
with user name and password, as well as the DNS name of the HTTP server. She then used this
information to obtain the files she needs to complete her task using Mozilla Firefox. Which of the following
is a primary risk factor when authenticating with a standard HTTP server?
A. HTTP usescleartext transmission during authentication, which can lead to a man-in-the-middle attack.
B. Irina has used the wrong application for this protocol, thus increasing the likelihood of a
man-inthe-middle attack.
C. A standard HTTP connection uses public-key encryption that is not sufficiently strong, inviting the
possibility of a man-in-the-middle attack.
D. Irina has accessed the Web server using a non-standard Web browser.
Answer: A

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NO.5 An application is creating hashes of each file on an attached storage device. Which of the following will
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A. An increase in the amount of time it takes for the system to respond to requests
B. Reduced risk of an attack
C. Increased risk of an attack
D. A reduction in the amount of time it takes for the system to respond to requests
Answer: A

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of this attack?
A. Filtering traffic at the firewall
B. Changing your ISP
C. Installing Apache Server rather than Microsoft IIS
D. Placing the database and the Web server on separate systems
Answer: A

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NO.7 You have been assigned to configure a DMZ that uses multiple firewall components. Specifically, you
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the last one that inspects traffic before it passes to the internal network. Which term best describes this
device?
A. Screening router
B. Bastion host
C. Proxy server
D. Choke router
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the first tool needed to create a secure networking environment?
A. User authentication
B. Confidentiality
C. Security policy
D. Auditing
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is most likely to pose a security threat to a Web server?
A. CGI scripts
B. Database connections
C. Flash or Silverlight animation files
D. LDAP servers
Answer: A

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occurred?
A. Atrojan has attacked the system.
B. A SQL injection attack has occurred.
C. A spyware application has been installed.
D. A root kit has been installed on the system.
Answer: D

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