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Exam Code: E20-018

Exam Name: EMC (Virtualized Data Center and Cloud Infrastructure Design Specialist)

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NO.1 When applying compliance principles to your company s VDC and cloud architectures, how should you
approach your information life cycle management strategy?
A. Data of reset
B. Archival and offsite storage
C. Production and backup
D. Inception to completion
Answer: B

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NO.2 When using logging to maintain server security, which is the key element for intrusion detection and
should be contained the server logs?
A. Vulnerability scan that identifies susceptible services that are active on the server.
B. Results of penetration testing through uncover problem probable weaknesses.
C. An entry for each application transaction with details of the organization.
D. Alerts to suspicious activities that require further investigation.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A midsize company has deployed centralized storage and is currently planning to virtualize their servers.
They have considered their application into Tiers, with Tier 1 application requiring the same service and
performance levels of the current servers.
They have purchased new, high capacity servers for the virtualized environment and are planning to
consolidate several physical servers into a single hypervisor. They are know determining the bandwidth
requirements of the application in order to purchase the current number of FCME CNAs for each server.
The results of their analysis for Tier 1 application are as follows: Average SAN Bandwidth: 3 Gb/s
Average LAN Bandwidth: 2 Gb/s
What is the minimum number of CNAs they would need to install an each server to meet the bandwidth
required for the Tier 1 application while providing CAN redundancy and high availability?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are three attributes of a cloud services design?
A. Web-based APIs, shared resources, minimal capital expenditures
B. Static service, fixed priced access, improved economics
C. Accessed via a web portal, self-service, throttled access
D. Dedicated resources, usage-based pricing, web-based APIs
Answer: A

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NO.5 A development organization uses a PaaS service from a public cloud to develop and test an application.
Once sending and verification are complete, the development team discovers that the cloud services
uses proprietary software in the PaaS clustering mailing and deployment of the application within their
production data center imposition without significant application records.
What this type of lock-in called?
A. Geographical lock-in
B. Technology lock-in
C. Cloud lock-in
D. Vendor lock-in
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer has implemented a Vblock solution in their primary data centre. They are using a single
management tool set to configure and provisions the computer, network, and storage resources within the
Vblock.
Which management tool are they using?
A. EMC ControlCenter
B. EMC Unisphere
C. EMC United Infrastructure Manager
D. VMware vCenter
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two capacity management objectives often conflict with each other?
A. Manageability and redundancy
B. Availability and security
C. Compliance and efficiency
D. Efficiency and availability
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer has asked you to develop a framework for assuming that the cloud Part of this will resume
an assessment development.
Where should you lock first for assessment criteria and technologies?
A. International standards
B. Internal IT development
C. Company metadata
D. Industry best practices
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the key business goal when consolidating by business application.?
A. Virtualize the compute environment for efficiency
B. Identify security gaps and increase security measures
C. Reduce footprint by decreasing energy and space requirements
D. Implement converged network technology for performance
Answer: A

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NO.10 What would you identify as a business application in applying IT as a Service to IT processions?
A. Defined workflow request processes
B. Funded as a cost center
C. Virtual data center best practices
D. SLA-driven management
Answer: A

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NO.11 Your client is considering a virtualized data center (VDC) as an investment in process improvement.
A VDC can improve the delivery of which business process?
A. Auditing
B. Business continuity / disaster recovery
C. Compliance
D. Capacity planning / management
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is its approach to addressing performance issues during the Virtualize phrase of the cloud
maturity mode?
A. Selective
B. Investigative
C. Proactive
D. Reactive
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is the first phase of the Virtual Data Center Design Process?
A. Evaluate technology options
B. Create plan
C. Perform initial analysis
D. Gather data
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is a key VDC and cloud planning consideration for IT governance?
A. Change management
B. Regulations
C. Separation of duties
D. Creating trust zones
Answer: B

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NO.15 A large company with multiple heterogeneous arrays would like to take advantage of the performance
simplified management benefits of storage virtualization. They have a data center transformation pain that
includes producing power and cooling at a high priority.
Which storage virtualization method would meet their requirements?
A. Network-based storage tiering
B. Vertical storage tiering
C. Server-based storage tiering
D. Horizontal storage tiering
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-918

Exam Name: EMC (IT-as-a-Service Expert Exam for Cloud Architects)

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NO.1 The IT group within a manufacturing organization is transforming their manual service offerings into
automated service offerings to be available from a service catalog. After reviewing the required KPIs for
the service, the service transition project manager asks you if the monitoring tools they currently employ
need to be replaced.
What criteria are needed to effectively monitor the required KPIs?
A. Can they measure, gather, analyze, and present the required metrics?
B. Can they control, automate, monitor and manage all elements of the service?
C. Can they provide end-to-end support of the services?
D. Can they integrate with the orchestration engine to provide automation?
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which metric measures the time taken to realize benefits from an ITaaS solution?
A. Time-to-value
B. Time-to-live
C. Time-to-deliver
D. Time-to-deploy
Answer: A

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NO.3 An organization wishes to move toward full ITaaS implementation. Their IT team is skilled, disciplined,
and exhibits strong teamwork. They have demonstrated the ability to deliver services with supporting
processes and regulations.
As their ITaaS consultant, you need to take them to the next level in the service orientation maturity model.
What is the next level?
A. Service Aligned
B. Service Aware
C. Service Capable
D. Service Neutral
Answer: A

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NO.4 The first phase of new ITaaS service introduces the offering to 10% of the engineering organization. The
IT organization leverages the management tools used in their traditional data center processes to provide
visibility into silos and control of the infrastructure. They also have adapted some ITSM concepts as a
framework for their management practices.
During the initial phase of the service deployment, a problem was encountered in one of the VMs.
The IT organization is concerned about the extensive amount of time and resources spent determining
the cause of the issue.
What is the most likely reason it takes more time than expected to resolve the problem?
A. The legacy management tools do not have the capability to provide a holistic view of the service
instance
B. The expertise of the service desk personnel is inadequate to properly handle service related issues
C. The complex nature of orchestration and automation makes problem identification and root cause
analysis unlikely.
D. The cultural hurdles that span organizational silos have not been addressed and resolved.
Answer: A

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NO.5 An enterprise has decided to implement a new service that will process credit card information. They
will deploy this service within their private cloud. They have a relationship with a public cloud provider that
claims to be PCI compliant.
The enterprise wishes to implement a service that is PCI compliant with the least amount of effort. The
service is protected by a policy-based intrusion detection system. Cardholder data is securely transmitted
to the web interface.
Which additional design elements would best be suited for this implementation?
A. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. No credit card information is stored within the application.
B. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted, stored, and securely sent
directly to the credit card processing system. Credit card information is stored within the public cloud
provider using AES 128 encryption.
C. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. Credit card information is backed up to the private cloud system and
stored using AES 128 encryption.
D. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent to both the
credit card processing system and to private cloud for historical tracking and reporting only.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A manufacturing company hired you to help them in their journey to a hybrid cloud. You conduct an
assessment and recommend migrating several existing Tier 2 applications to a public cloud provider. You
must work within the following constraints:
-Migration can be performed only during weekends -Only limited downtime is acceptable -The
configuration of the host and applications cannot be changed -The company needs to keep the costs as
low as possible -Although there are no specific performance requirements, they are concerned about the
quality
of the user experience
Which solution best addresses these needs?
A. Layer 2 extension with VPN connection over Internet with WAN optimization
B. Layer 3 connection over Internet with QoS
C. Layer 3 connection over Internet with WAN optimization
D. Layer 2 extension with dedicated link and WAN optimization
Answer: A

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NO.7 A large enterprise has several applications deployed in a hybrid cloud. Ever since the hybrid cloud was
deployed, the enterprise network operations center has never been able to fully reconcile network and
audit logs.
What should be investigated first as the possible source of the issue?
A. Confirm time is synchronized between locations
B. Filtering false positives
C. Exposing management APIs
D. Tenant in-control versus provider in-control differences
Answer: A

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NO.8 An IT organization is currently 80% virtualized and the CIO is planning for the transition to ITaaS.
Senior executives are concerned that IT supports too many services and that many of the services are
neither efficient nor necessary.
What argument can the CIO make to address the executives' concerns and convince them that ITaaS is
the correct strategic decision?
A. ITaaS promotes the rationalization of services currently being offered by IT and offers the services that
provide business value through the service catalog.
B. A CMDB can be utilized during the instantiation of the services to improve service levels for the
consumers of IT services.
C. ITaaS offers an opportunity to evaluate whether certain IT services should be sourced with a public
cloud service provider.
D. ITaaS promotes the concept of on-demand self-service, allowing consumers to use only the services
from which they can derive business value.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A hosting company has experienced a sudden increase in customer interest and wishes to implement
ITaaS. They are now hosting online shopping applications for several retail computer and electronics
companies.
Developers in the customer companies use their own internal credentials and have the ability to publish
applications and changes to their stores. Shoppers access these stores using a variety of mobile
applications and web browsers.
What should be addressed when migrating to ITaaS and implementing a service catalog for the retail and
electronic companies?
A. Integration with different authentication systems
B. Support for several different CMDB systems
C. Integration of multiple hypervisors
D. On-demand resource pool creation
Answer: A

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NO.10 A financial company has made several acquisitions within the past few years. They currently have two
primary data centers that are 50 km apart. Recently, an internal assessment was conducted to explore
ways to improve ingress/egress utilization and to extend their firewall to the cloud.
Which type of firewall would best suit their needs?
A. Reverse proxy servers
B. Federated
C. Load balanced reverse proxy servers
D. Linked VPN
Answer: B

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NO.11 An enterprise company has a large, virtualized data center. They are currently in the process of auditing
their virtual servers to ensure they are in compliance with regulatory requirements.
They want to be able to check new and existing virtual servers for compliance and automatically
remediate any virtual machines that are found to be out of compliance.
As a Cloud Architect, which product would you recommend for this purpose?
A. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud (CIAC)
B. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
C. VMware vCenter Configuration Manager
D. RSA Archer eGRC Platform
Answer: C

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NO.12 The marketing line of business of an enterprise has deployed web services within a private cloud. They
wish to provide additional web services elastically and distribute them around the globe using a public
cloud provider.
The web services have a loosely coupled design and have no content dependencies on any resources in
the private cloud. They are created from a standard PaaS template, which includes an intrusion
prevention system that periodically polls a central management server for security updates. The IPS
management server is located within the private cloud. No layer 2 connectivity exists between the private
and public clouds. The consumers of these web services are distributed across the globe.
Which solution would you recommend to best support the web service elasticity and to minimize service
network latency for the consumer?
A. Implement an encrypted VPN tunnel between the private and public clouds.
B. Implement a global load balancing service as a front-end for the web services.
C. Increase bandwidth between the private cloud and the Internet.
D. Deploy a central database server to consolidate web service content.
Answer: B

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NO.13 A large service provider is designing a solution to protect itself against malicious content, such as
viruses in a SOAP attachment, and denial of service attacks.
Which type of firewall is most appropriate for their needs?
A. Linked VPNs
B. Federated
C. Reverse proxy servers
D. XML
Answer: D

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NO.14 A company is deploying a major new business application. The company has difficulty managing the
software development lifecycle. As a result, the time from generating requirements to operational delivery
is significant.
Which best addresses the company s need for shorter release cycles and better code quality?
A. Implement common collaboration tools
B. Utilize configuration management methodologies
C. Use of common automation and orchestration processes
D. Transition to a DevOps culture
Answer: D

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NO.15 An enterprise decided to place some sensitive data in the public cloud and implemented security
mechanisms to protect this data.
Recently the public cloud provider's systems had a security breach. The enterprise was not concerned
because they felt their data had been completely protected. All of the services housing the data are
protected by an IPS application and no alerts were generated by the system.
How did the enterprise protect its data?
A. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest and in-transit. The encryption
keys were under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
B. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest and in-transit. Copies of the
encryption keys were secured by the public cloud provider in case they were lost.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were neither accessed nor copied.
C. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted in-transit only. The encryption keys were
under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
D. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest only. The encryption keys were
under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 212-77

Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (Linux Security )

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NO.1 Which of the following statements applies to the IP address 192.168.0.1?
A. It is reserved.
B. It cannot be assigned to a host that accesses the Internet.
C. It is designated for multicast transmission.
D. It can be freely assigned to a host on a private network
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is not a Linux DHCP client?
A. dhcpcd
B. pump
C. dhcpd
D. dhclient
Answer: A

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NO.3 Assume that you have just logged on as a regular user. Which of the following
commands allows you to edit the file with user passwords associated with the
Shadow Password Suite?
A. vi /etc/shadow
B. sudo -c "vi /etc/shadow"
C. su -c "vi /etc/shadow"
D. visu vi /etc/passwd
Answer: B

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NO.4 Under the bash shell which is the most appropriate place to set environment
variables that apply to all users?
A. /etc/skel
B. rc.sysinit
C. /etc/profile
D. /etc/bashrc
E. rc.local
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are told by a co-worker that information pertaining to the syslog command can
be found in man page 3. How would you view this information?
A. man syslog 3
B. man 3 syslog
C. man syslog -3
D. man -3 syslog
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following are risks of SUID and SGID programs? (Choose two)
A. Bugs in the programs may cause more damage than they would in ordinary programs.
B. The program files are large and thus may cause a disk to run out of space.
C. Because the programs require password entry, running them over an insecure network
link runs the risk of password interception.
D. Users may be able to abuse a program's features, thus doing more damage than would
otherwise be possible.
Answer: B, D

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NO.7 Which of the following are ways to disable dynamic routing?
A. The linuxconf Gated Daemon screen
B. The linuxconf Routed Daemon screen
C. echo "0" > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/dynamic_routing
D. Editing /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is true of Linux passwords?
A. They are changed with the password utility.
B. They must be changed once a month.
C. They may consist only of lowercase letters and numbers.
D. They may be changed by the user who owns an account or by root.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following measures is the most effective way to prevent attacks
through various network services?
A. Disable a service in the appropriate /etc/xinetd.d configuration file.
B. Use a firewall to drop all requests to unneeded services.
C. Block service requests with the appropriate commands in /etc/hosts.deny.
D. Uninstall unneeded network services.
Answer: D

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NO.10 How should you engage users in helping to secure your computer's passwords?
A. Educate them about the importance of security, the means of choosing good
passwords, and the ways crackers can obtain passwords.
B. Instruct your users to e-mail copies of their passwords to themselves on other systems
so that they're readily available in case of an emergency.
C. Enforce password change rules but don't tell users how crackers obtain passwords
since you could be educating a future cracker.
D. Give some of your users copies of the encrypted database file as backup in case a
cracker breaks in and corrupts the original.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 312-49v8

Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator Exam)

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NO.1 Computer forensics report provides detailed information on complete computer forensics
investigation process. It should explain how the incident occurred, provide technical details of the
incident and should be clear to understand. Which of the following attributes of a forensics report
can render it inadmissible in a court of law?
A. It includes metadata about the incident
B. It includes relevant extracts referred to In the report that support analysis or conclusions
C. It is based on logical assumptions about the incident timeline
D. It maintains a single document style throughout the text
Answer: C

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NO.2 Networks are vulnerable to an attack which occurs due to overextension of bandwidth,
bottlenecks, network data interception, etc.
Which of the following network attacks refers to a process in which an attacker changes his or her
IP address so that he or she appears to be someone else?
A. IP address spoofing
B. Man-in-the-middle attack
C. Denial of Service attack
D. Session sniffing
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is not a part of securing and evaluating electronic crime
scene
checklist?
A. Locate and help the victim
B. Transmit additional flash messages to other responding units
C. Request additional help at the scene if needed
D. Blog about the incident on the internet
Answer: D

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NO.4 When collecting electronic evidence at the crime scene, the collection should proceed from
the
most volatile to the least volatile
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following Wi-Fi chalking methods refers to drawing symbols in public places to
advertise open Wi-Fi networks?
A. WarWalking
B. WarFlying
C. WarChalking
D. WarDhving
Answer: C

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NO.1 A company would like to scan documents for disaster recovery purposes. Which system would be most
appropriate?
A. Knowledge Management System (KMS)
B. Image Management System (IMS)
C. Electronic Document Management System (EDMS)
D. Storage Area Network (SAN)
Answer: B

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NO.2 A business requires its employees to have access to internal documents via the Internet. Which of the
following technologies will allow access to those documents and maintain security of the connection?
A. Checksumming
B. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
C. Watermarking
D. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Answer: D

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NO.3 A client wishes to establish a Document Management System (DMS) for handling a large volume of
standard documents to be scanned. The client wants to enable search capabilities for certain information
on the documents. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate solution?
A. Form recognition and entire document search
B. Form recognition and index search
C. Zonal OCR and entire document search
D. Zonal OCR and index search
Answer: D

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NO.4 All of the following are inputs to project schedule development EXCEPT:
A. change requests.
B. lead- and lag-times.
C. resource requirements.
D. resource availability.
Answer:A

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NO.5 The proposed project plan requires that documents must have a file plan and track all access
attempts. What MUST be part of this solution?
A. A records management system
B. A storage management system
C. A scan subsystem
D. Annotation and redaction capabilities
Answer:A

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NO.6 During discovery phase interviews with key personnel, a previously unknown critical document type is
identified. What should the next step be?
A. Ignore the document type in order to avoid scope creep
B. Include the document type in the project scope
C. Document the discovery and complete a change order request form
D. Discuss alternatives to including the document type
Answer: B

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NO.7 When reviewing potential software choices to propose to a client, the MOST important aspect to
consider from the following is:
A. the price of the potential software solution.
B. how well the software meets the clients needs.
C. the cost of the annual maintenance agreement of the software.
D. how robust the software is.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A member of the implementation team discovers that the software vendor is issuing a new version.
Which one of the following should be done?
A. Upgrade after the project completion date
B. Research the new product to understand its features
C. Inform the business sponsors
D. Notify the Project Manager
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is a disadvantage of scanning all images at the highest resolution possible?
A. Higher expense
B. Lower quality
C. Small file size
D. Compatibility issues
Answer:A

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NO.10 A company is required to create a training class for a proposed Electronic Document Management
System (EDMS). All of the following factors would be considered for end-user training EXCEPT:
A. the assessed skill level of individuals.
B. the document management needs of the organization.
C. the architecture of the network.
D. the current manual processes regarding documents.
Answer: C

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NO.11 A local library keeps many important documents relating to the historical landmarks in town. The
documents consist of blueprints, photographs, and newspaper articles. The library wants to capture the
documents electronically so they can be viewed online. The first concern of the person capturing the
documents would be the:
A. color of the documents.
B. age and physical condition of the documents.
C. volume of the documents on file.
D. number of file cabinets.
Answer: B

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NO.12 A document that would address the repurposing or reorganization of staff, the benefits of a new
system, and the increased market value of staff due to new skills is called a:
A. cultural change management plan.
B. project management plan.
C. human resource plan.
D. project objectives document.
Answer:A

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NO.13 While validating requirements, it becomes apparent that multiple solutions could fit the customers
needs. The consultant should:
A. pick the solution they feel is best suited.
B. choose the least expensive option in terms of price to help win the business.
C. present the alternatives to the customer for discussion.
D. pick the most feature rich solution.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following are elements of a communication plan?
A. Ethernet and TCP / IP
B. Project charter and project plan
C. E-mail and FTP
D. All-hands meetings and intranet postings
Answer: D

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NO.15 Many of the documents to be scanned by a customer are sales invoices with a yellow background. A
feature of the proposed scanning solution should include:
A. image enhancement.
B. deskew.
C. color dropout.
D. color enhancement.
Answer: C

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NO.16 A company has a single call center. It will introduce new products that will increase customer service
calls. The company wants to handle an increasing number of calls without adding personnel or
decreasing customer service levels. Which aspect of workflow technology should it consider?
A. Pre-retrieval of customer folders
B. Sorting of documents in a work queue
C. Load balancing
D. Work monitoring
Answer:A

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NO.17 The Human Resources department receives applications: 10% by fax, 30% by e-mail, and 60% by mail.
All applications are two-sided forms. Applications received by mail must be scanned into the Document
Management System (DMS). If 300 applications are received by the Human Resources department per
week, how many images will be scanned per week?
A. 300
B. 360
C. 400
D. 600
Answer: B

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NO.18 A customer is performing incremental backups nightly. At the end of the month they review a list of
documents that have reached their end of life and determine if they can be destroyed. Which of the
following BEST describes the records storage management process?
A. The customer does not have a records management process.
B. The customer has an informal records management process.
C. The customer has a formal records storage management process.
D. The customer has a document capture process.
Answer: C

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NO.19 All of the following are routing features of production workflow EXCEPT:
A. work monitoring.
B. support for multiple queues based on work type.
C. sorting queues in date order.
D. pending or holding items.
Answer:A

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NO.20 A proposed scanner uses TIFF Group 4 compression. What will be the average size of a black and
white A4 sized
(8.5
inches x 11 inches or 216 mm x 279 mm) document at 600 dpi (24 dots per mm)?
A.
50 K bytes
B.
180 K bytes
C.
210 K bytes
D.
380 K bytes
Answer: C

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Exam Code: BCP-223

Exam Name: BlackBerry (Supporting a BlackBerry Enterprise Server v5.0 in a Microsoft Exchange Environment)

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NO.1 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you
may click Next to proceed to the next item.
Answer:

NO.2 What icon is displayed in the menus on the BlackBerry device to indicate that an option has been
disabled by an IT policy? (Choose one.)
A. Red Padlock
B. Red ?Red ?
C. Black ?Black ?
D. Black Padlock
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two methods can be used to directly access the Windows Event Log to review them for errors?
(Choose two.)
A. Internet Explorer
B. Windows Control Panel
C. Windows Run command
D. BlackBerry Configuration Tool
E. BlackBerry Administration Service
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 A system administrator has applied Service Pack 1 to the Microsoft Office Communicator Server 2007.
The system administrator decides to restart the BlackBerry Collaboration Service. What will be the effect
on the BlackBerry device users that are currently logged in to the Microsoft Office Communicator client?
(Choose one.)
A. The users will not notice any difference
B. The connection will appear slow while the service restarts
C. The contacts will temporarily be lost in the Microsoft Office Communicator client
D. The current session will be dropped and the users will have to log in again
E. The users will not be able to send messages
Answer: D

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NO.5 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you
may click Next to proceed to the next item.
Answer:

NO.6 Which one of the following is the correct registry path to the BlackBerry Configuration Database
information? (Choose one.)
A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\ResearchIn Motion\BlackBerry Enterprise
Server\Database\
B. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\ResearchIn Motion\BlackBerry Enterprise Server\
C. HKEY_LOCAL_USER\SOFTWARE\ResearchIn Motion\BlackBerry Enterprise
Server\Database\
D. This information is not stored in the registry
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following are two pieces of information required when configuring a remote component
for high availability? (Choose two.)
A. IP address
B. Fully Qualified Host Name
C. High Availability Pool Name
D. NetBios Name
E. DNS Alias
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Which of the following components is responsible for performing wireless calendar
synchronization? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Synchronization Service
B. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
C. BlackBerry MailStore Service
D. BlackBerry Controller Service
E. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
Answer: B

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NO.9 By default how long will the enterprise activation password last before it expires within the BlackBerry
Administration Service? (Choose one.)
A. 1 hour
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
E. 7 days
Answer: D

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NO.10 A BlackBerry device user is trying to send an email message but is receiving the following error when
trying to send: Failure at Service. The user is unable to send PIN messages as well. They are able to
make phone calls from the BlackBerry device. No other user on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server is
having this issue. What could a system administrator do to troubleshoot this issue? (Choose one.)
A. Restart the BlackBerry Controller Service to force a mailboxrescan
B. Associate the user's PIN number back into the database for the users information
C. Contact the service provider to ensure the correct data provisioning for the user
D. Wipe the BlackBerry device and complete and enterprise activation process
E. Ensure the Send As permission is set in Active Directory for this user
Answer: E

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NO.11 While provisioning a new BlackBerry device for a user, the following error is displayed: An error has
occurred. Please contact your System Administrator. When reviewing the logs the following is located:
User is not authorized for BlackBerry services What could be the cause of the issue? (Choose one.)
A. The user account needs to be assigned to a user group
B. The PIN needs to be added to the Approved PIN list in the Enterprise Service Policy
C. A security wipe must be performed on the BlackBerry device prior to starting the enterprise activation
process
D. Enterprise Server Policy needs to be enabled on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. An IT policy must be assigned to the newly created user account
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which are the minimum supported BlackBerry Enterprise Server versions which can be upgraded to
BlackBerry Enterprise Server version 5.0? (Choose one.)
A. 4.0 SP3 or later and 4.1 SP4 or later
B. 4.0 SP3 or later and 4.1 SP6 or later
C. 4.0 SP5 or later and 4.1 SP4 or later
D. 4.0 SP5 or later and 4.1 SP6 or later
E. 4.0 SP7 and 4.1 SP4 or later
F. 4.0 SP7 and 4.1 SP6 or later
Answer: E

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NO.13 A system administrator attempts to start the BlackBerry Enterprise Server services but receives the
following error message: System Error 1069 has occurred. What could be the possible cause for this error?
(Choose one.)
A. The system administrator is logged into the computer with the wrong account
B. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server services are starting with the local system account
C. The system administrator has not been assigned to the Enterprise Administrator roleThe
system administrator has not been assigned to the Enterprise Administrator?role
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server services are trying to login with the incorrect login information
E. The Microsoft SQL and Microsoft Exchange services are not started on the remote computer
Answer: D

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NO.14 What happens to the activation email message after the BlackBerry Messaging Agent has retrieved it
from the mailbox? (Choose one.)
A. Email message is marked as read
B. Email message is moved to the Sent folder
C. Email message remains in the Inbox unread
D. Email message is removed from the Inbox
E. Email message is filed to the BlackBerry folder in the mailbox
Answer: D

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NO.15 IT policies are assigned for the BlackBerry Enterprise Server at multiple levels. When there are
overlaps what level of the IT policy takes priority? (Choose one.)
A. User
B. Group
C. Server
D. Domain
E. Corporate
Answer: A

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NO.16 How can a support representative assign a custom enterprise activation password to a BlackBerry
device user? (Choose one.)
A. Generate an activation email through the BlackBerry Administration Service
B. Assign a custom password through the IT policy assigned to the user
C. Send a PIN message to the user containing the custom password
D. Specify an activation password through the BlackBerry Administration Service
E. Assign the password to the PIN through the Enterprise Service Policy
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which BlackBerry Enterprise Server components can be installed on remote computers; separate from
the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Controller Service
B. BlackBerry Administration Service
C. BlackBerry MDS Integration Service
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
E. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
F. BlackBerry Alert Service
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.18 Which of the following ule Types?define a change in the data for an item being monitored by the
BlackBerry Monitoring Service? (ChooseWhich of the following ?ule Types?define a change in the data
for an item being monitored by the BlackBerry Monitoring Service? (Choose three.)
A. Value Based Rule
B. Time Based Rule
C. Trigger Based Rule
D. Action Based Rule
E. Duration Based Rule
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.19 A system administrator runs daily reports on BlackBerry device users with the BlackBerry Monitoring
Service. The system administrator notices that the pending count for 2 out of 30 users is increasing. How
can the system administrator verify the two users are able to establish a data connection for email
message flow? (Choose two.)
A. Produce another daily report to verify that pending count will decrease
B. Send a PIN message to the two affected users
C. Check the application log for any errors for the two users
D. Remove and re-add the two users and start the BlackBerry Enterprise Server services
E. Verify the port 3101 is open on the firewall
Answer: B,C

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NO.20 Which BlackBerry Router Service configuration must be done before performing a wireless enterprise
activation over Wi-Fi ? (Choose one.)
A. Ensure the BlackBerry Router Service is not installed remotely
B. Ensure the BlackBerry Router Service has appropriate permissions to Microsoft SQL Server
C. Ensure the BlackBerry Router Service has appropriate permissions to the mailbox
D. Ensure the BlackBerry Router Service is configured to listen on port 8080
E. Verify the setting Permit wireless activation in your WLAN environment is enabled
Answer: E

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NO.1 The ANALYZE TABLE command should be used...
A. When you need to find out why a query is taking a long time to execute.
B. To improve performance by updating index distribution statistics.
C. After large amounts of table data have changed.
D. To check a tables structure to see if it may have been damaged and needs repair.
Answer: BC

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NO.2 What are some properties of using LOCK TABLE?
A. Less work is required by the server to acquire and release locks.
B. It can only be used with the MyISAM storage engine.
C. Using LOCK TABLE sometimes decreases the amount disk reads and writes needed for a group of
statements.
D. All tables must be locked in a single statement.
E. It creates more disk activity.
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 Which of the following APIs/connectors are included in a MySQL distribution?
A. Connector/J
B. Connector/ODBC
C. C API
D. Connector/NET
E. Connector/MJX
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following best describes why table locking is often not desirable compared to page or row
locking?
A. Table locks can have deadlocks.
B. Table locks create concurrency issues.
C. Table locks prevent other clients from making any changes to the table until released.
D. Table locks can cause data corruption issues if more than one client tries to make changes while
locked.
Answer: BC

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NO.5 Which of the following are some benefits of using MySQL built binaries over binaries built by yourself?
A. They are highly optimized.
B. They are cross-platform.
C. Many are built using commercial compilers that produce a better quality build than with freely available
compilers.
D. They will work with tools such as MySQL Administrator and MySQL Query Browser.
E. They may include libraries not available in the standard operating system library.
Answer: ACE

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NO.6 Which of the following best describes the scope of explicitly and implicitly set locks?
A. Explicitly set locks may span several commands.
B. Implicitly set locks may span several commands.
C. Implicitly set locks will span only one statement or transaction.
D. Explicitly set locks will span only one statement or transaction.
Answer: ABC

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NO.7 What are some advantages of using the SHOW command rather than using the
INFORMATION_SCHEMA?
A. It is available for releases older than MySQL 5.0.
B. It returns results quicker than using the INFORMATION_SCHEMA.
C. Using SHOW can provide more concise information.
D. SHOW is a feature of standard SQL, and INFORMATION_SCHEMA is a MySQL specific command.
Answer: AC

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NO.8 mysqldump can be instructed to include commands to drop and recreate tables before trying to create
or load data.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following are requirements for MyISAM binary portability?
A. Both machines must use the same operating system.
B. Database and table names must use lowercase format.
C. Both machines must use IEEE floating-point format or contain no floating-point columns.
D. Both machines must use two's-complement integer arithmetic.
Answer: CD

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NO.10 Index analysis and optimization using ANALYZE and OPTIMIZE statements should...
A. generally never be run manually
B. be run once the table reaches 100,000 rows or above
C. be run when more than 5% of the rows are changed by a single statement
D. be run when EXPLAIN SELECT shows that an inordinate amount of rows is expected to be read during
query execution
E. be run when you suspect that a table is heavily fragmented
Answer: DE

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NO.11 Which of the following are true regarding the table cache?
A. It is used to cache row data in open tables
B. It holds file descriptors for open tables
C. The size of the table cache may be set per-session
D. Each connection has its own table cache. They are of equal size, set globally.
E. There is one table cache, shared among all sessions.
F. Increasing the size of the variable table_cache allows mysqld to keep more tables open simultaneously
Answer: BEF

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NO.12 Which of the following correctly defines dirty reads, non-repeatable reads and phantom row?
A. A dirty read is a read by one transaction of uncommitted changes made by another transaction.
B. A dirty read is a read by one transaction of its uncommitted changes.
C. A non-repeatable read occurs when a transaction performs the same retreival twice but gets a different
result each time.
D. A non-repeatable read is a row that appears where it was not visible before.
E. A phantom is a row that appears where it was not visible before.
F. A phantom is a read by one transaction of uncommitted changes made by another transaction.
Answer: ACE

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NO.13 Which of the following are true for how BTREE and HASH index types should be used for MEMORY
tables?
A. HASH index types are only for use with equality comparisions such as those using the = and <=>
operators.
B. BTREE index types are preferable for use with comparisons that do not just use equality operators
such as = and <=>
C. BTREE index types are only for use with equality comparisons such as those using the = and <=>
operators.
D. HASH index types are preferable for use with comparisons that do not just use equality operators such
as = and <=>
Answer: AB

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NO.14 In a standard MySQL installation which of following files are stored below the data directory?
A. Format files for all the tables
B. Data and index files for MyISAM tables
C. InnoDB tablespace files
D. General server logs
E. MySQL upgrade script files
Answer: ABCD

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NO.15 Which of the following statements is true for mysqldump?
A. It can dump data only on remote servers.
B. It can dump data only on the local server.
C. It can dump data on both local and remote servers.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Will the following SELECT query list all of the tables in the INFORMATION_SCHEMA database? If not,
why?
SELECT TABLE_NAME FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES
WHERE TABLE_SCHEMA = 'INFORMATION_SCHEMA'
ORDER BY TABLE_NAME
A. Yes.
B. No; the INFORMATION_SCHEMA database does not contain information on itself.
C. No; the WHERE clause is incorrect. The correct field name is TABLE_SCHEMATA.
D. No; there is no table in the INFORMATION_SCHEMA database called TABLES.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following steps should be taken to restore an InnoDB table to a consistent state without
having to shutdown the server?
A. Run the REPAIR TABLE command.
B. Dump the table with mysqldump, drop the table then re-create from the dump file.
C. Run the CHECK TABLE command.
D. Dump the table with mysqlhotcopy, drop the table then re-create with the backup file.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following are some general properties of the mysqlimport client program?
A. It loads data files into tables.
B. It can load files only on the server host.
C. It provides a command-line interface to the LOAD DATA INFILE.
D. It can load files both on the client and server host.
E. It bypasses the server and writes directly to the corresponding data files.
Answer: ACD

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NO.19 Which of the following are some general capabilites of the mysql client program?
A. Create and Drop databases
B. Ping the server
C. Create, Drop, and modify tables and indexes.
D. Shutdown the server.
E. Create users.
F. Display replication server status.
Answer: ACEF

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NO.20 Suppose you have a column in which most records are going to be between 30 and 32 characters.
Which of the following column types would be most efficient?
A. VARCHAR
B. CHAR
C. TEXT
D. Either VARCHAR or CHAR
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which mysqld command line option disables incoming TCP/IP connections?
A. --shared-memory
B. --memlock
C. --no-networking
D. --skip-networking
Answer: D

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NO.22 Assume you compile MySQL from source and invoke configure with the following options.
--with-charset=latin1 --with-extra-charsets=utf8,ucs2
Compared to a standard binary installation that contains many more character sets, which of the following
statements is/are true?
A. The compiled version will use less disk space, because only a few character sets will be installed on
disk.
B. The compiled version will use less memory, because only a few character sets will be loaded by the
server.
C. The compiled version will use less file handles, because only a few files need to be opened when the
server is started.
Answer: AB

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NO.23 Which of the following statements are true regarding table locks?
A. They can only be released by the client holding them.
B. They can be released by other connections than the client holding them.
C. They are implicitly released when the connection is closed.
D. They are not released when the connection is closed
Answer: AC

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NO.24 Consider the following query:
DELETE FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES
WHERE table_schema = 'world'
AND table_name = 'Country'
What would be the result of executing this query?
A. An error would be issued
B. A warning would be issued
C. The row would be deleted from the INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES table, and the table Country
would be dropped from the world database
D. The row would be deleted from the INFORMATION_SCHEMA, but the table Country in the world
database would be unaffected.
Answer: A

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NO.25 MySQL is a multi-threaded database server. Every connection to the database server is handled by
it's own thread.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which of the following statements are true regarding the InnoDB storage engine?
A. It uses multiversioning to isolate transactions.
B. It is not possible for deadlocks to occur.
C. It does not isolate transactions.
D. It is possible for deadlocks to occur.
Answer: AD

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NO.27 Another user has issued the statement LOCK TABLE pets FOR WRITE
You can...
A. Update table pets
B. SELECT from table pets
C. Update and SELECT from table pets
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which of the following statements are true?
A. InnoDB supports Foreign Keys.
B. MyISAM supports Foreign Keys.
C. InnoDB supports cascaded DELETE statements.
D. MyISAM supports cascaded DELETE statements.
E. InnoDB supports cascaded UPDATE statements.
F. MyISAM supports cascaded UPDATE statements.
Answer: ACE

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NO.29 Which of the following actions are performed during an RPM installation of the MySQL server
package?
A. Setup a mysql user
B. Setup a mysql group
C. Initialize the data directory
D. Setup passwords for all default accounts.
Answer: ABC

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NO.30 Suppose you have a server that has been started with the --myisam-recover option. When does the
server perform the check on the MyISAM tables?
A. Each time the server is started.
B. Each time it encounters an error.
C. Each time it opens the MyISAM table files.
D. Each time the CHECK TABLE command is issued.
Answer: C

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