2013年8月31日星期六

The Best Cisco 650-296 Exam Training materials

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Exam Code: 650-296
Exam Name: Cisco (TelePresence Video Sales Engineer for Advanced Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which two of these tasks should be completed to enable calls through a firewall? (Choose two)
A. Create one traversal server zone on the VCS Expressway for any VCS Control that is running a
traversal client
B. Configure the traversal server zone with details of the corresponding zone on the traversal client
C. Create a traversal server zone on your local VCS Control Build Your Dreams
D. Configure VCS with details of the corresponding zone on the traversal server
E. Create a traversal client zone on your local VCS Control
Answer: AE

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NO.2 Which of these is an advantage of the multizone model VCS with Prefix Dialing?
A. Location requests are only sent to the relevant zone
B. Location VCS servers only need to know about the directory VCS and do not need to know about any
other local VCS
C. When adding a new zone, only the directory gatekeeper needs to be configured
D. All gatekeepers know about all calls at times
Answer: A

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NO.3 How does the VCS Expressway allow secure traversal of a firewall?
A. It uses a designated port to allow all traffic to pass through the firewall
B. It takes the place of a firewall to control trusted messages using a pre-set list of destinations
C. It makes outbound connections only
D. It prohibits all incoming and outgoing message from untrusted destinations
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which MSE blade provides high-definition multipoint control unit support?
A. Cisco MSE 8510 Media2
B. Cisco MSE 8420 Media
C. Cisco MSE 8350 IP GW
D. Cisco MSE 8220 VCR
Answer: A

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit,
Which deployment model is represented.?
A. campus multizone
B. WAN multizone
C. campus single zone
D. WAN single zone
Answer: D

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NO.6 Your network uses a combination of SIP and H.323 endpoints. When planning to implement firewalls for
security, what device permits traversal of the firewall for there devices?]
A. Gateway
B. VCS Expressway
C. Tandberg Management Suite
D. multipoint control unit
E. Cisco TelePresence
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two of these configurations must be applied when dialing from an IP endpoint to an ISDN
destination? (Choose two)
A. A dial plan rule must be created
B. Gateway services numbers should mimic incoming PSIT routing methods
C. The Cisco TelePresence Software Version TC4.0 protocol is required
D. DID mapping must be configured on the ISDN gateway Build Your Dreams
E. A prefix must be registered with the gatekeeper
Answer: AE

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NO.8 Which three methods can be used to start a conference with the Cisco TelePresence Video
Communication Server? (Choose three)
A. Use the web interface of the Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server
B. Use the Cisco TelePresence System user interface
C. Call directly into a conference from an endpoint
D. Use a FindMe connetion
E. Connect to a VCS Expressway from an IP endpoint
F. Receive a request-for-conference call from a connected user
G. Use the Cisco TelePresence remote control
Answer: BCG

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NO.9 Why would you include include a gateway in your design?
A. Gateways assist in video and conferencing integration
B. Gateways allow for simplification of the address plan by elimination the need for dialing a full PSTN
number
C. Gateways provide network translation if varying protocols are used
D. Gateways are required to integrate multiple endpoints
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of these is a disadvantage of a single-zone (VCS) WAN model?
A. No endpoints will be able to place calls if connectivity is lost to the VCS location
B. Not all signaling goes through the VCS in the headquarters, causing signaling traffic across the WAN
link
C. If interworking is required, the media does not go through the VCS in the headquarters, even if the
video call is from a branch office endpoint to another endpoint in that office
D. Flexibility cannot be assured in the headquarters configuration
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 642-270
Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing Cisco TelePresence Video Networking Solutions Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 On a Cisco TelePresence CLI, which command is the correct syntax to run a traceroute to a remote
host.?
A. network traceroute {dest}
B. tracert {dest}
C. utils network tracert {dest}
D. set tracert {dest}
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which QoS mapping is the best practice for Cisco TelePresence systems?
A. CoS 5 to map to a DSCP value of 40
B. CoS 4 to map to a DSCP value of 46
C. CoS 3 to map to a DSCP value of 48
D. CoS 5 to map to a DSCP value of 16
E. CoS 4 to map to a DSCP value of 32
Answer: E

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NO.3 Which statement describe the Hard-lock VIP mode of a Cisco TelePresence Multipoint
conference?
A. No Cisco TelePresence endpoint is allowed to join without the VIP approval.
B. No Cisco TelePresence endpoint is allowed to joinuntil the designated VIP Cisco TelePresence
endpoint joins.
C. VIP video is switched out temporarily with voice-activatedswitching; VIP video is switched back
automatically.
D. VIP video is always displayed at all sites and is never switched out.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Given the following:
Cisco TelePresence endpoint A: In the Cisco Unified Communication Manager, Quality is set to High
detail, Good Motion 720p
Cisco TelePresence endpoint B: In the Unified CM, Quality is set to High detail, Best Motion 1080p
What happens when Cisco TelPresence endpoint A calls Cisco TelePresence endpoint B?
A. Cisco TelePresence endpoint A gets a fast busy.
B. The call connects, but it drops witha ° C on fi gu r a ti on m i s m a t c ¡± e r ro r o n C i sc o T el e Pr esenc e endp oin t B
C. Cisco TelePresence endpoint B quality upgrades to 1080p and the call goes through at 1080p.
D. Cisco TelePresence endpoint B quality drops down to 720p and the call goes through at 720p.
Answer: D

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NO.5 On a Cisco TelePresence CLI, which command is the correct syntax to get Layer 2 address of all
connected devices?
A. show arp list
B. utils arp list
C. arp list active
D. arp list list
E. show arp active
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 650-378
Exam Name: Cisco (ABNFEE Advanced Borderless Network Field Engineer Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which option is the end-to-end architecture for a network that is composed of advanced, intelligent
technologies and devices in a platform that is optimized for the dilivery of a rich-media experiences?
A. Cisco Motion
B. Cisco Medianet
C. Cisco VideoStream
D. Cisco AnyConnect
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which three of the following are interconnected elements of Cisco Unified Wireless network that work
together to deliver unified, enterprise-class wireless solution? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Motion
B. Cisco ClientLink
C. Cisco AnyConnect
D. mobility services
E. access points
F. identity-based networking
G. world-class network management
Answer: DEG

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NO.3 Which two basic blocks or modules make up the campus architecture.? (Choose two.)
A. core
B. access-distribution block
C. services block
D. network infrastructure
E. NetFlow
F. distribution
Answer: BC

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NO.4 What is the main goal of Cisco Borderless Network?
A. to connect anyone, anywhere, on any device
B. to promote energy efficiency in data centers
C. to allow people to keep in touch with family members aroud the world
D. to allow people to communicate on any device within the parametrs of their network
Answer: A

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NO.5 You want a security solution that enforces access and policies in borderless network by providing
information such as identity, time and date, posture, location, device type and access type. Which Cisco
solution will provide you with this information ?
A. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances
B. Cisco AnyConnect
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco IronPort Web Security Appliances
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which core component of the Cisco Borderless Network Architechture stops attacks before they
penetrate the network perimeter by protecting resourses and data, in addition to voice, video, and
multimedia traffic ?
A. meidanet
B. Cisco TrustSec
C. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance 5500 Series
D. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two of the following does midianet capacity planning involve? (Choose two)
A. the size of the video that is running
B. determining if the video that is running is standart definition or high definition
C. how much video has been run over the network in the past 30 days
D. determining how much video is currently running over the network
E. the buffer requirements for each type of video
Answer: DE

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NO.8 Which of the following wirelessly connects devices to the network recourses and simultaneously
monitors the airspace to send radio information back to WLCs?
A. Cisco Aironet Access Points
B. Wi-Fi devices
C. Cisco Compartible Extension tags
D. Cisco Wireless Location Appliance
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which three deployment options does Cisco offer for email security? (choose three.)
A. Cisco ASA
B. Stuxnet
C. Cisco AnyConnect
D. a hybrid-hosted service offering
E. a dedicated hosted email security service
F. cloud security
G. an on-premises appliance
Answer: DEG

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NO.10 Which of the following is the Cisco option that is on premises, dedicated appliance offering
high-performance web-based threat mitigation and security policy enforcment?
A. Stuxnet
B. Cisco IronPort S-series Web Security Appliance
C. Cisco AnyConnect
D. Cisco ASA
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 650-156
Exam Name: Cisco (ISPES Cisco IronPort Security Professional - Email Security )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 IPAS is enabled for all inbound mail but you want to bypass Spam checking for messages from
cisco.com. Which three methods will do this.? (Choose three.)
A. Add the IP addresses of the sending the sending mail servers of cisco.com to the White list.
B. Create a message filter to bypass Spam checking for Cisco.com.
C. Create a Mail FlowPolicyforSenderCisco.com and disable IPAS.
D. Create an incoming mail policy to match on cisco.com and disable IPAS.
E. Create a content filter to bypass Spam checking for Cisco.com.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 How should marketing messages that are missed by marketing mail detection is handled?
A. Turn off this feature and report the issue to customer support for fine tuning of the filter.
B. Send samples to spam@access.ironport.com
C. Send samples to ham@access.ironport.com
D. Send samples to ads@access.ironport.com.
E. Access the Mail Policies: Anti-Spam menu and lower the marketing-mail threshold.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the process of rewriting a private senders address into a public senders address is called?
A. Forward address rewriting
B. LDAP Masquerading
C. Proxy address lookup
D. LDAP routing
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following repotting options will allow you to view aggregate traffic across a group of two
email security appliances, separate from other appliance groups?
A. Sender Groups
B. Domain-Based Executive Summary
C. Email f low Central
D. Email Reporting Groups
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the first CU command for entering a message filter?
A. message
B. filter
C. message filter
D. filters
Answer: D

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NO.6 LDAP is enabled for all but one internal domain that is not represented in the LDAP directory, how would
you configure the appliance to accept it?
A. Create a Domain Assignments profile pointing to DEV NULL.
B. Create a message filter to bypass_idapaccept for the domain.
C. Configure the LDAP accept on the listener with a 250 code.
D. Bypass LDAP accept in a RAT entry.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two connection behaviors, specified in each Mail Flow policy, will apply an Inbound Mail Policy?
(Choose two.)
A. CONTINUE
B. ACCEPT
C. REJECT
D. RELAY
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 What is the difference between the ACCEPT and RELAY action in the Mail Flow Policy?
A. ACCEPT will allow the email in and handle it as an inbound message, RELAY won't accept the email
unless configured in the RAT.
B. ACCEPT will allow the email in and handle it as an inbound message, RELAY will accept the email but
skip the RAT and handle it as an outbound message.
C. ACCEPT will allow the email in and handle it as outbound and skip the RAT, RELAY will accept the
email and handle it as inbound.
D. ACCEPT will allow the email in and handle it as an outbound message, RELAY will accept the email
and handle it as an inbound message.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You have finished installing a C-160 that is designed to relay incoming and outgoing mail for the mail
serverexchange.bravo.com. This is a one armed installation. The outgoing mail cannot be delivered.
According to the mail log, what is the most likely problem?
A. An SMTP route needs to be configured for exchange.inside.com
B. The mail server needs to point to a private listener
C. Exchange.bravo.com needs to be configured on the RELAYUST
D. Exchange.bravo.com needs to be configured in the RAT
E. Exchange.bravo.com needs to be removed from the SUSPECTUST
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is a base DN in the LDAP directory?
A. The fully qualified domain name.
B. A users mail attribute
C. A user attribute used for location searches
D. A starting point with a LDAP schema for searches
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Cisco (Cisco SP Video Cable Access Networks Design Specialist for SE)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 What is the most appropriate optical technology when many groups of narrowcast traffic must be
transported from a headend to a hub and the number of available fibers is limited?
A. 1310 nm transmission
B. O-band multiplexing
C. DWOM
D. CWDM
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is meant by the expression 'physical node size'.?
A. the number of subscribers who are served by the HFC network
B. the number of potential subscribers who receive signals from and transmit signals to an optical receiver
and transmitter in an optical node
C. the number of subscribers who are connected by coaxial cable to a single optical node
D. the size of the area that can be served by a single optical transmitter
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two effects will result if the RF signal level at the output of an amplifier is increased? (Choose
two.)
A. an increase in the amount of distortion
B. a reduction in the amount of distortion
C. an improvement in the CNR
D. a reduction in the CNR
E. overheating of the amplifier circuits
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 If you have two signals each at 5 dBm and they ate combined, what is the combined power?
A. 5 dBm
B. 8 dBm
C. 10 dBm
D. 50 dBm
Answer: C

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NO.5 With an optical transmitter that has a dispersion limit of 65 km and the link is 95 km, which piece of
equipment should be added to the link?
A. DCM9900
B. DCM30
C. DCM95
D. DCM 65
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 642-416
Exam Name: Cisco (Unified Communications Architecture and Design Exam)
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NO.1 Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Business Edition integrates the Cisco Unity Connection
voice-mail system on a single platform. Which solution can be used for call processing backup? (Choose
one.)
A. Backup and Restore
B. SRST
C. subscriber server
D. DRS server
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two messaging products are based on a Linux operating system? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unity
B. Cisco Unity Connection
C. Cisco Unity Express
D. Cisco Call Pilot
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Cisco Unified Communications servers are supported on the Cisco Unified Computing System platform
using which LAN connection? (Choose one.)
A. Fast Ethernet -- Copper
B. Gigabit Ethernet -- Copper
C. Gigabit Ethernet -- Fiber
D. 10 Gigabit Ethernet -- Copper
E. 10 Gigabit Ethernet -- Fiber
Answer: E

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NO.4 Cisco Unified Communications servers are supported on the Cisco Unified Computing System platform
using which two disk drive rpm speeds? (Choose two.)
A. 5,400
B. 7,200
C. 10,000
D. 15,000
E. 14,400
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Which messaging product is associated with Unified Messaging? (Choose one.)
A. Cisco Unity
B. Cisco Unity Connection
C. Cisco Unity Express
D. Cisco Call Pilot
Answer: A

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NO.6 Cisco Unity Connection provides which three benefits for retrieving messages? (Choose three.)
A. web access to voice messages, faxes, and email
B. RSS access to voice messages, faxes, and email
C. SNMP access to voice messages, faxes, and email
D. mobile access to voice messages, faxes, and email
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 Which two rich-media Cisco Unified IP Phone series are supported in Cisco Unified Communications
Manager Version 8.x.? (Choose two.)
A. VIP
B. 9700
C. 6900
D. 7900
E. 9900
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 Cisco Unity provides which two benefits for retrieving messages? (Choose two.)
A. web access to voice messages, faxes, and email
B. RSS access to voice messages, faxes, and email
C. SNMP access to voice messages, faxes, and email
D. mobile access to voice messages, faxes, and email
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Cisco Unified Communications servers are supported on the Cisco Unified Computing System platform
using which storage solution? (Choose one.)
A. NAS
B. SAN
C. internal hard drive
D. external hard drive
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which three Cisco Unified Communications Manager features are new in Version 8.x? (Choose three.)
A. BLF Speed Dial
B. Geolocation
C. Phone View
D. Extension Mobility Cross Cluster
E. Trust Verification Service
Answer: B,D,E

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Exam Code: 646-580
Exam Name: Cisco (Advanced Security for Account Managers-ASAM)
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NO.1 How do you begin a meaningful security discussion with a customer?
A. Identify customer security needs and assets that need protection.
B. Discuss individual products such as the firewall.
C. Install security agents and IPS.
D. Explain that there are many products that will meet customer needs.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are two outcomes of preparing for the business requirements workshop? (Choose two.)
A. defining detailed customer requirements
B. aligning the solution with customer business needs
C. discovering which requirements conflict with the solution
D. defining stakeholders
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 In which two ways does a Cisco solution directly reduce the cost of operation? (Choose two.)
A. by minimizing the number of vendors that supply security
B. by improving competitive advantage
C. by reducing overall management complexity
D. by addressing security pain points
E. by avoiding information theft
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Cisco's security solutions allow organizations to protect productivity gains, reduce overall
operating costs and enable mission critical deployment of new and existing technologies. Which
government regulation makes it possible to sell a Cisco Security Solution to companies collecting
financial information?
A. HIPAA
B. AS/NZS 4360
C. BS7799/ISO 17799
D. GLBAct
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which threat can be traced back to the application abuse pain point?
A. Day Zero worms and viruses
B. unauthorized user access
C. protocol manipulation
D. operational complexities
E. DoS attacks
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are meeting with a customer who is concerned about remote employees connecting to
the
network with infected systems and spreading infection across the corporate network. How should
you position the Cisco SDN with this customer?
A. The Cisco Self-Defending Network provides technologies that have intelligent insight into what
is running oncomputers, so there is no possible way for remote employees to connect to the
network with infected systems.
B. The Cisco Self-Defending Network is adaptive, distributing security technologies throughout
every segment of thenetwork to enable every network element as a point of defense.
C. The Cisco Self-Defending Network includes NAC, which evaluates devices that may not have
the latest antivirussoftware or operating system patch, and either denies access to those devices
or quarantines them.
D. The Cisco Self-Defending Network includes integration, which enables a more proactive
response to threats withgreater operational efficiency through the consolidation of multiple
security
services on the devices.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two of these statements describe why it is important to have a proactive security
solution
when dealing with data centers and security? (Choose two.)
A. Applications being attacked account for 75 percent of network downtime.
B. Data centers are becoming more virtual and automated.
C. Data center traffic is inherently secure.
D. Data center traffic is decreasing.
E. Attacks are becoming more sophisticated.
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 How does the Cisco Security Agent work in conjunction with third-party antivirus software?
A. Cisco Security Agent checks the status ofthird-partyantivirus software and makes a decision
about compliance.
B. Cisco Security Agent checks the status ofthird-partyantivirus software and forwards it to
thethird-partyantivirus policy server.
C. Cisco Security Agent checks the status ofthird-partyantivirus software and forwards it to the
policy server (ACS).
D. Cisco Security Agent enhances the security by sandboxing the applications and the system in
addition to the antivirus protection offered by the antivirus software.
E. Cisco Security Agent makes the antivirus software superfluous.
Answer: D

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NO.9 How does business case alignment improve the overall success of network integration?
(Choose
two.)
A. by increasing customer satisfaction
B. by recommending change to the customer
C. by defining project milestones
D. by assessing the realization of ROI and other benefits of the security system
E. by assessing the current state of customer operations
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Which two of these best describe how the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach provides value for
partners? (Choose two.)
A. improves network availability
B. reduces risk in deploying and supporting technologies
C. increases ROI
D. improves customer satisfaction ratings
E. increases staff productivity
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: 642-997
Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric (DCUFI))
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NO.1 What is an Overlay Transport Virtualization extended VLAN?
A. the VLAN that must contain the overlay interface
B. the user VLAN that exists in multiple sites
C. the VLAN used to access the overlay network by the join interface
D. the VLAN used to locate other AEDs
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement about RBAC user roles on a Cisco Nexus switch is true?
A. The default SAN administrator role restricts configuration to Fibre Channel interfaces.
B. On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, roles are shared between VDC.
C. If you belong to multiple roles, you can execute only the commands that are permitted by both
roles
(logical AND).
D. The predefined roles can only be changed by the network administrater (superuser).
E. Access to a command takes priority over being denied access to a command.
Answer: E

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NO.3 Which statement about SNMP support on Cisco Nexus switches is true?
A. SNMP is not VRF-aware.
B. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per VDC.
C. Only users belonging to the network operator RBAC role can assign SNMP groups.
D. Cisco NX-OS only supports SNMP over IPv4.
E. SNMP requires the LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG license.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which feature enables NIV?
A. vPC
B. VN-Tag
C. Cisco OTV
D. Cisco FabricPath
E. EHV
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which option is a restriction of the unified ports on the Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric
Interconnect
when connecting to the unified fabric network?
A. The FCoE or Fibre Channel port allocations must be contiguous on the 6200.
B. vPC is not supported on the Ethernet ports.
C. 10-G Fibre Channel ports only use SFP+ interfaces.
D. Direct FC connections are not supported to Cisco MDS switches
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Cisco (Cisco Express Foundation for Account Managers (646-365日本語版))
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NO.1 どの 2 つのステ ートメントは、 ビジネス? プロセスに関してコゕテクノロジーの役割に
ついて記述しますか。 (2 つ選んでください)
A. エンドツーエンド のボーダレス? ネ ッ トワ ー ク? ゕ ー キ テ ク チャ は 市 場 環 境 を 変 更 する 際
に人々とタスクを統合するために基礎を構築する。
B. 運用上の機敏さは 今日ビジネスにとって重要である。 一定の安定したコゕは IT が急速に
変わるゕプリケーションに集中することを可能にする。
C. 市場の変化に反応 するために、 動作やプロセスを変更する必要がある。 ネットワーク? ゗
ンフラストラクチャが変更された要件と一致する必要がある。
D. コゕ技術への要件 はむしろ静的であるため、市場の変化に依存しない。
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 どの 3 つがシ スコのボ ーダレ ス? ネ ットワー ク? ゕーキテ クチャー について 最も 良く
記述しますか。 (3 つ選択してください)
A. ゗ンフラストラクチャーとネットワーク? サービスはユーザー? サービスの根拠である。
B. シスコ? ボーダレス? ネットワークは共通ネットワーク? ゗ンフラストラクチャに基づく。
C. ルータおよびス゗ ッチは輸送サービスを提供し、 シスコ? ボー ダレス? ネットワーク? ゕー
キテクチャのレ゗ヤ 2 およびレ゗ヤ 3 で動作する。
D. シスコ? ボ ー ダ レ ス? ネ ッ ト ワ ー ク? ゕ ー キ テ ク チ ャ は ボ ー ダ レス? ネ ッ ト ワ ー ク? サービ
スを提供する。
E. ユーザー? サービスはシスコ? ボーダレス? ネットワーク? ゕーキテクチャの一部ではない 。
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 どの 3 つのステートメントは正確に職場の発展やネットワークの重要性について記述
しますか。 (3 つ選択してください。 )
A. モビリテゖは場所の境界線を変わらせる。
B. クラウド? サービス はエンドユーザ位置を変わらせる。
C. クラウド· サービス はゕプリケーションの境界線を変わらせる。
D. IT コンシューマラ゗ ゼーションは場所の境界線を変わらせる。
E. IT コンシューマラ゗ゼーションはデバ゗スの境界線を変わらせる。
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 どの 3 つはオペレーションを変更するための主なドラ゗バーですか。 (3 つ選んでく
ださい)
A. 市場動向の変化
B. 競争の変化
C. ゕプリケーション? ソフトウェゕのバージョンの変更
D. 相対的な強さの変 化
E. IPv6 へのエンタープ ラ゗ズ? ネットワークの移行
F. シスコの単一のベンダー? ネットワーク? ソ リューションへの移行
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 どの 3 つのステートメントは正確に職場の発展やセキュリテゖへの影響について記述
しますか。 (3 つ選択してください。 )
A. モビリテゖは場所の境界線を変わらせる。
B. クラウド? サービス はエンドユーザ位置を変わらせる。
C. クラウド· サービス はゕプリケーションの境界線を変わらせる。
D. IT コンシューマラ゗ ゼーションは場所の境界線を変わらせる。
E. IT コンシューマラ゗ゼーションはデバ゗スの境界線を変わらせる。
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 どのステートメ ントが正 確にネ ットワ ークにビ ジネス?ビデオ? ゕ プリケ ーショ ン の゗
ンパクトについて記述しませんか。
A. ビデオ? ゕプリケーションは急速にネットワーク内のトラフゖックを増加させる。
B. ビジネス品質 の ビ デ オ を 確 保 す る た め に 、 ビ デ オ? トラフゖックを優先する必要がある。
C. 異なる機能を持つ 様々なデバ゗スはビデオ会議に参加できるようにする必要がある。
D. 情報 を 共 有す る ため に ネ ット ワ ーク を 介し て フ ゔ゗ ル を交 換 する 必 要 がな く なる た め、
ビデオ会議はネットワークの負荷を低減する。
Answer: D

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NO.7 どの 2 つのステ ートメントが正確にネットワークに BYOD の ゗ンパクトについて記述
しますか。 (2 つ選んでください)
A. 従業員が私有のデバ゗スを使用するので、TTCO が削減される 。
B. BYOD は生産性を増加させるが、IT は継ぎ目なく利用された装置を無線であるだけでなく
金網をはったネットワークと統合する方法を見つける必要がある。
C. BYOD は複数のオペレーテゖング? システムをサポートするために要件を追加する。
D. 自分の装置を使用 する場合、企業ユーザは同じルック? ゕンド? フゖールを期待する。
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 次のステートメントのどれが、ネッ ト ワークの戦略的な重 要 性について最も良く 記 述
しますか。
A. ネットワークは内部ゕプリケーションにとって最も重要である。
B. ネットワークは会 社サービスへのゕクセスを顧客に提供するために最も重要である。
C. ネットワークはゕ プリケーションを持 つ 人々とデバ゗スを統 合 することによって、 ビ ジ
ネス? プロセスをサポートする。
D. ネットワークは内 部および外部のユーザーと彼らのデバ゗スを統合する。
Answer: C

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NO.9 どの 2 つのステートメントはボーダレスの世界でサービスを提供する場合、顧客が直
面しなければならない挑戦について最も良く記述しますか。 (2 つ選択してください)
A. どのように従業員によって所有される装置のエネルギー消費をコントロールしますか。
B. どのように全体の ネットワークの中でビデオをサポートすることができますか。
C. どのようにネットワークにシームレスにクラウド? サ ー ビ ス を 統 合 す る こ と が で き ま す
か。
D. どのタ゗プのフゔ ゗ゕウォールを展開しなければなりませんか。
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 どの 3 つはルーテゖングおよびス゗ッチングのための需要をあおる主要なトレンドで
すか。 (3 つ選択してください)
A. モビリテゖ
B. ビデオ
C. 帯域幅の最適化
D. クラウド
E. IT の標準化
Answer: A,B,D

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Exam Code: 156-708.70
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Endpoint Specialist - Media Encryption(CPEPS-ME))
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Fill in the blank if no Anti-Virus scanner or Pointsec DataScan is detected on the client
machine,then automatic authorization.
A. will be possible under certain restrictions.
B. will not be possible and access will not be granted.
C. is intiated with administrative approval Build Your Dreams PassGuide 156-708.70
D. will permit the user to authorization the device anyway.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Consider the following image of a log event. Assume this device is frequently used, but you
cannot control its use to the extent it that id required. What is the most reliable solution to this
dilemma?
A. Add this device to Device Manager
B. Create e-mail alerts anytime this device is accessed
C. Create a media audit rule
D. require that the device be password encrypted
Answer: A

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NO.3 Can Endpoint Security Media Encryption import Novell user group?
A. No, Endpoint Security Media Encryption only work with Active Directory
B. Yes
C. Yes, if the Novell Server is using RADIUS with LDAP
D. No, Endpoint Security Media Encryption only uses RADIUS
Answer: B

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NO.4 Under what circumstances this command line procedure would be used? 1. osql.exe �CE 2.
Use disknet 3. update globle configuration set 4. go
A. To connect a local MSDE database installed on a machine using a Microsoft Trusted application
B. To unlock and access the Endpoint Security Media Encryption Server service.
C. To address a blue screen issue when using Endpoint Security media Encryption and McAfee
8.5i on a Windows Vista Enterprise machine
D. To connect to a remote SQL instance using trusted authentication.
Answer: A

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NO.5 There has been a security breach of your companys network and you must block clients
form downloading all files with an .inst extension. What is the correct approach to resolve this
issue?
A. Create the file extension in PSG, save the profile, and update all groups.
B. Load the default profile to groups in the organization until steps are taken to remove the
threat.
C. PSG does not support executing files having other than 3 character extensions and will
therefore block the file.
D. Selects the file extension in PSG, and reloads the profile appropriately.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 156-215.75
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NO.1 The Check Point Security Gateway's virtual machine (kernel) exists between which two layers of the
OSI model?
A. Session and Network layers
B. Application and Presentation layers
C. Physical and Datalink layers
D. Network and Datalink layers
Answer: D

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NO.2 The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one Linux Enterprise 3.0 server
working as the SmartConsole, and a second server running Windows 2003 as both Security Management
Server running Windows 2003 as both Security Management Server and Security Gateway. This is an
example of a(n).
A. Stand-Alone Installation
B. Distributed Installation
C. Hybrid Installation
D. Unsupported configuration
Answer: D

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NO.3 Of the three mechanisms Check Point uses for controlling traffic, which enables firewalls to incorporate
layer 4 awareness in packet inspection?
A. IPS
B. Packet filtering
C. Stateful Inspection
D. Application Intelligence
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements about Bridge mode is TRUE.?
A. When managing a Security Gateway in Bridge mode, it is possible to use a bridge interface for Network
Address Translation.
B. Assuming a new installation, bridge mode requires changing the existing IP routing of the network.
C. All ClusterXL modes are supported.
D. A bridge must be configured with a pair of interfaces.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003 server as the
SmartConsole and a second server running SecurePlatform as both Security Management Server and
the Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Unsupported configuration.
B. Hybrid Installation.
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Stand-Alone Installation.
Answer: D

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NO.6 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003 server as
SmartConsole and Security Management Server with a second server running SecurePlatform as
Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Hybrid Installation.
B. Unsupported configuration.
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Stand-Alone Installation.
Answer: C

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NO.7 R75's INSPECT Engine inserts itself into the kernel between which two layers of the OSI model?
A. Presentation and Application
B. Physical and Data
C. Session and Transport
D. Data and Network
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are a security architect and need to design a secure firewall, VPN and IPS solution. Where would
be the best place to install IPS in the topology if the internal network is already protected?
A. On the firewall itself to protect all connected networks centrally.
B. On each network segment separately.
C. On the LAN is enough, the DMZ does not need to be protected.
D. In front of the firewall is enough.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are installing a Security Management Server. Your security plan calls for three administrators for
this particular server. How many can you create during installation?
A. Depends on the license installed on the Security Management Server
B. Only one with full access and one with read-only access
C. One
D. As many as you want
Answer: C

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NO.10 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows XP workstation as the
SmartConsole, one Solaris server working as Security Management Server, and a third server running
SecurePlatform as Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Stand-Alone Installation.
B. Unsupported configuration
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Hybrid Installation.
Answer: C

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NO.11 How can you recreate the account of the Security Administrator, which was created during initial
installation of the Management Server on SecurePlatform?
A. Launch cpconfig and delete the Administrator's account. Recreate the account with the same name.
B. Export the user database into an ASCII file with fwm dbexport. Open this file with an editor, and delete
the Administrator Account portion of the file. You will be prompted to create a new account.
C. Type cpm -a, and provide the existing Administrator's account name. Reset the Security
Administrator's password.
D. Launch SmartDashboard in the User Management screen, and delete the cpconfig administrator.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track remote administrative activities?
A. WebUI
B. Eventia Reporter
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.13 UDP packets are delivered if they are _________.
A. A legal response to an allowed request on the inverse UDP ports and IP
B. A Stateful ACK to a valid SYN-SYN-/ACK on the inverse UDP ports and IP
C. Reference in the SAM related Dynamic tables
D. Bypassing the Kernel by the forwarding layer
of clusterXL
Answer: A

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NO.14 Once installed, the R75 kernel resides directly below which layer of the OSI model? Note: Application
is the top and Physical is the bottom of the IP stack.
A. Network
B. Transport
C. Data Link
D. Session
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following statements is TRUE about management plug-ins?
A. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.
B. A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and
support for new products.
C. Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of
the plug-in.
D. Installing a management plug-in is just like an upgrade process. (It overwrites existing components.)
Answer: B

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NO.16 When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which
other Check Point architecture component?
A. SecureClient
B. Security Gateway
C. SmartConsole
D. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself
Answer: B

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NO.17 During which step in the installation process is it necessary to note the fingerprint for first-time
verification?
A. When establishing SIC between the Security Management Server and the Gateway
B. When configuring the Security Management Server using cpconfig
C. When configuring the Security Gateway object in SmartDashboard
D. When configuring the Gateway in the WebUl
Answer: B

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NO.18 How can you most quickly reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between a Security
Management Server and Security Gateway?
A. Run the command fwm sic-reset to initialize the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) of the Security
Management Server. Then retype the activation key on the Security Gateway from SmartDashboard.
B. Use SmartDashboard to retype the activation key on the Security Gateway. This will automatically
Sync SIC to both the Security Management Server and Gateway.
C. From cpconfig on the Gateway, choose the Secure Internal Communication option and retype the
activation key. Next, retype the same key in the Gateway object in SmartDashboard and reinitialize
Secure Internal Communications (SIC).
D. From the Security Management Server s command line, Type fw putkey p <shared key> < IP Address
of security Gateway>.
Answer: C

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NO.19 When Jon first installed the system, he forgot to configure DNS servers on his Security Gateway.
How could Jon configure DNS servers now that his Security Gateway is in production?
A. Login to the firewall using SSH and run cpconfig, then select Domain Name Servers.
B. Login to the firewall using SSH and run fwm, then select System Configuration and Domain Name
Servers.
C. Login to the SmartDashboard, edit the firewall Gateway object, select the tab Interfaces, then Domain
Name Servers.
D. Login to the firewall using SSH and run sysconfig, then select Domain Name Servers.
Answer: D

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NO.20 You are running the Security Gateway on SecurePlatform and configure SNX with default settings. The
client fails to connect to the Security Gateway. What is wrong?
A. The routing table on the client does not get modified.
B. The client has Active-X blocked.
C. The client is configured incorrectly.
D. The SecurePlatform Web User Interface is listening on port 443.
Answer: D

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