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Exam Code: 640-816
Exam Name: Cisco (Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 222 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-18

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NO.1 What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch
reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed
locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision
number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent
mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP
servers.
Answer: CF

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NO.2 Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
A. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
B. FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
C. FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
D. FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?
A. 10.0.0.0 /21
B. 10.0.0.0 /22
C. 10.0.0.0 /23
D. 10.0.0.0 /24
Answer: B

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NO.4 A department decides to replace its hub with a Catalyst 2950 switch that is no longer needed by another
department. To prepare the switch for installation, the network administrator has erased the startup
configuration and reloaded the switch. However, PCs that are connected to the switch experience various
connectivity problems. What is a possible cause of the problem?
A. The VLAN database was not erased.
B. The management VLAN is disabled.
C. The running configuration should have been erased.
D. The "mode" button was not pressed when the switch was reloaded.
E. The switch was not configured with an IP address or a default gateway.
Answer: A

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NO.5 How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be
configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode access
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
C. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20
D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Answer: D

Cisco   640-816   640-816   640-816

NO.6 The network technician is planning to use the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask on the network.
Which three valid IP addresses can the technician use for the hosts? (Choose three.)
A. 172.22.243.127
B. 172.22.243.190
C. 172.22.243.191
D. 192.168.1.160
E. 10.17.64.34
F. 10.16.33.98
Answer: BEF

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NO.7 Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Answer: D

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NO.8 The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the
graphic.
There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of
examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the
default and the router IDs are shown with each router.
Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)
A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2
Answer: DF

Cisco certification   640-816   640-816   640-816

NO.9 An administrator is troubleshooting a problem between routers that are using different versions of RIP.
Which two commands would provide information about which version of RIP was being sent and received
on an interface? (Choose two.)
A. show ip protocols
B. show ip route rip
C. show interfaces
D. debug rip routing
E. debug ip rip
Answer: AE

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NO.10 At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Answer: B

Cisco exam prep   640-816   640-816 answers real questions   640-816

NO.11 Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit?
(Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same
encapsulation type.
Answer: DF

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NO.12 A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
C. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses,
up to the maximum defined.
D. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running
configuration.
E. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice
VLAN.
Answer: CD

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NO.13 The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1.
What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)
A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.
D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1.
E. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be
forwarded out fa0/1.
F. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be
forwarded out fa0/1.
Answer: BD

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NO.14 Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Answer: BE

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NO.15 Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the output of the R1# show ip route command and the information presented in the graphic,
which of the following is a potential routing problem?
A. the use of summarization for discontiguous networks
B. the use of CIDR with a routing protocol that does not support it
C. the use of VLSM with a routing protocol that does not support it
D. the use of the no auto-summary command with a protocol that does not support summarization
E. the use of the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 command with a routing protocol that does not support it
Answer: A

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NO.16 What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It converges quickly.
B. OSPF is a classful routing protocol.
C. It uses cost to determine the best route.
D. It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.
E. OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.
F. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.
Answer: ACF

Cisco test answers   640-816   640-816 test questions   640-816

NO.17 A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the cause of
this failure?
A. A Level 5 password is not set.
B. An ACL is blocking Telnet access.
C. The vty password is missing.
D. The console password is missing.
Answer: C

Cisco   640-816   640-816 questions

NO.18 Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Answer: BC

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NO.19 Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco
switches?
A. STP
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. RSTP
Answer: B

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NO.20 The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6.
What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)
A. no broadcast
B. change of source address in the IPv6 header
C. change of destination address in the IPv6 header
D. Telnet access does not require a password
E. autoconfiguration
F. NAT
Answer: AE

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Exam Code: 642-242
Exam Name: Cisco (Unified Contact Center Enterprise Implementation(UCCEI))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 84 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-18

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NO.1 The Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise can queue calls at different queue priorities. In this
sample script, at what priority will the call be queued?
A. Three (3) ?As set in the Queue Priority node.
B. Five (5) ?The default for the Queue to Skill Group node, unless it was set otherwise.
C. None, as queue priority only is used when more than one skill group is used in the Queue to Skill.
D. It depends, as each call hitting the script will reset the priority for all calls when the Queue Priority node
is executed.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When setting up the Cisco Unified IP IVR 4.1(x) to communicate with Cisco Unified Communications
Manager, how do you configure the IP IVR to communicate with more than one Cisco Unified
Communications Manager server in the cluster?
A. On the JTAPI Provider Configuration web page, there are two fields to input the IP addresses or host
names of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers.
B. On the JTAPI Provider Configuration web page, you can enter only one Cisco Unified Communications
Manager server for the JTAPI provider.
C. On the JTAPI Provider Configuration web page, list the IP addresses or host names of the Cisco
Unified Communications Manager servers separated by a comma.
D. On the JTAPI Provider Configuration web page, enter the IP address or host name of the publisher and
when you synchronize the configuration, the IP IVR will automatically configure the available Cisco
Unified Communications Manager servers.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, if the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
subscriber for the Cisco voice gateway is down, how will incoming calls be treated?
A. The call will get a "fast busy" and be terminated by the gateway.
B. The voice gateway will reroute the call to a secondary CTI route point.
C. The voice gateway will use the alternative/backup subscriber in the cluster for call control.
D. The voice gateway will route around the subscriber to an IP IVR port.
Answer: C

Cisco   642-242   642-242   642-242

NO.4 In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, if an agent is in a Reserved state, which of the
following actions can the agent take?
A. Log off.
B. Change state to Not Ready.
C. Answer the call being sent to them.
D. Enter wrap-up data from the prior call.
Answer: C

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NO.5 In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, when a CTI Server on a Peripheral Gateway
fails, which of the following will not occur?
A. CTI OS Server disconnects all active agent CTI OS desktop clients from failed server.
B. CTI OS Agent Desktop clients attempt to automatically connect to another CTI OS Server.
C. CTI OS Agent Desktop clients display an "Offline" message.
D. Both CTI OS Servers perform a graceful shutdown to reset CTI OS Agent Desktop client connections.
Answer: D

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NO.6 In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise, a Dialed Number Plan can be created to make it
easier for agents to perform transfers. Which of the following dialed numbers are invalid for agents to dial
from the plan?
A. SALES
B. 3%45
C. 3333
D. TEC123
Answer: B

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NO.7 In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, the same object is configured in multiple
components. Choose the correct set of matching terms that fill in the missing object names in each
component.
A. 1 = CTI route point 2 = JTAPI call control group 3 = DNIS (temporary label)
B. 1 = CTI route point 2 = Dialog control group 3 = DNIS (temporary label)
C. 1 = CTI port 2 = JTAPI call control group 3 = CTI route point
D. 1 = CTI route point 2 = JTAPI call control group 3 = None
Answer:A

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NO.8 In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, how are CTI route points and CTI ports created
in the Unified IP IVR 4.0(x)?
A. CTI route points and CTI ports are created and associated to the IP IVR user in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager Administration prior to configuring the CTI route points in the IP IVR in the
CRS Administration menu.
B. CTI route points and CTI ports are created from the CRS Administration menu. The CRS
Administration will automatically create and associate the CTI route points and CTI ports in Unified
Communications Manager.
C. CTI route points and CTI ports are created from the CRS Administration first and then the CTI route
points and CTI ports are associated to the correct user using Unified Communications Manager
Administration manually.
D. CTI route points and CTI ports can either be created from the CRS Administration menu or from the
Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration as long as the CTI route points and CTI ports are
associated to the correct IP IVR user profile.
Answer: B

Cisco   642-242 answers real questions   642-242   642-242

NO.9 A Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise routing script can send calls directly to a pre-defined label
or extension on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP Phone. What is the impact of that sort of
routing on the system?
A. The Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution will automatically take the call back based on the
ring-no-answer settings for the agent group associated with the call if no one answers within the timeout
parameter.
B. The Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution cannot send calls outside the defined range of
agent extensions / device targets in the system.
C. The Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution loses track of the call and reports it as
"transferred out".
D. The Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution does not lose track of the call if the call is
transferred to a monitored or agent extension / device target in the system.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the correct order of steps to install a new Cisco Unified IP Phone for a Unified Contact Center
Enterprise agent in Unified Communications Manager 5.x?
A. add device and device type, select model, enter the MAC address, and assign to device pool
B. add peripheral and peripheral type, select model, and assign to device pool
C. add phone, select model, enter the MAC address, and assign to device pool
D. add agent, select model, enter the MAC address, and assign to device pool
Answer:A

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NO.11 In a Cisco Unified ICM routing script, what is the best way to assign a sales call a higher priority in the
system?
A. At the beginning of the Sales routing script, use the Queue Priority node to set the priority of all calls
hitting that script to 1.
B. In the Queue to Skill Group node, set the call priority to 1 for any Sales skill group queue nodes.
C. In the Queue to Skill Group node, set the call priority to 10 for any Sales skill group queue nodes.
D. Use a Queue Priority node for support and other non-sales calls with priority 1.
Answer: B

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NO.12 When configuring a Cisco Unified Communications Manager dial plan to allow for dialing 911 or placing
other emergency calls, where should Urgent Priority be checked off in?
A. route pattern
B. route list
C. route group
D. calling search space
Answer:A

Cisco original questions   642-242   642-242

NO.13 Media termination points in Cisco Unified Communications Manager provide media services such as
call hold and call transfer for a call routed to an H.323 endpoint. To configure an MTP resource, which two
items must be configured? (Choose two.)
A. MTP type
B. MAC address
C. media routing domain
D. device pool
E. location
Answer:AD

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NO.14 In the Cisco Unified Communications Manager 4.1(x), what is the first step to create a new CTI route
point to be associated with a JTAPI user?
A. Create the CTI route point device and assign a directory number.
B. Using device association, map the CTI route point directory number to the JTAPI user.
C. Create a calling search space that includes the JTAPI user and CTI route point directory number.
D. Create a new directory number and associate it to the JTAPI user.
Answer:A

Cisco   642-242   642-242 certification   642-242   642-242

NO.15 Which of the following is not recommended to reside on the C: drive partition of any Cisco Unified ICM
Server?
A. Microsoft SQL Server log files
B. Core Unified ICM software
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Unified ICM Historical Data Server Database
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 646-230
Exam Name: Cisco (Advanced Unified Communications AM)
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Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-18

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NO.1 An account manager requires an easy-to-use, web-enabled tool to demonstrate to a prospective
customer the benefits of a converged network in terms of productivity enhancements and real
estate savings. What should the account manager use?
A.Cisco ROI analysis
B.Cisco CNIC
C.business case from the industry of the prospect
D.customized hurdle rate analysis
Correct:B

Cisco   646-230   646-230 pdf

NO.2 A company's mission is to support its customers' technical needs. Its consultants work from
home or on site. They must often work in teams to exchange information about new products and
implementations. Choose the Cisco Unified Communications tool, features, and functions that will
best support this company's goal.
A.Unified Messaging, delivering every voice, email, and fax message into a single inbox
B.Presence, providing information about consultants, such as availability and busy status
C.Collaboration, bringing together voice, video, and web conferencing
D.Contact Center solutions, delivering intelligent contact routing, desktop and telephony integration, and
multichannel contact management
Correct:C

Cisco   646-230   646-230 pdf

NO.3 Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express and Cisco Unified
Communications Manager is correct?
A.Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express is router-based and Cisco Unified Communications
Manager scales up to 240 users.
B.Cisco Unified Communications Manager is router-based and scales up to 24000 users.
C.Cisco Unified Communications Manager is server-based and scales up to 24000 users.
D.Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express is router-based and Cisco Unified Communications
Manager scales up to 30000 users.
E.Cisco Unified Communications Manager is server-based and Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Express scales up to 300 users.
Correct:D

Cisco   646-230   646-230 pdf

NO.4 Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express would be most appropriate for which potential
customer?
A.an organization that needs to support a large number of teleworkers
B.a global organization with many offices around the world
C.an organization with several regional and branch offices
D.a small organization with approximately 100 employees
Correct:D

Cisco   646-230   646-230 pdf

NO.5 Which sales tool provides a Microsoft Excel spreadsheet to calculate cost savings that can be
realized from a Cisco Unified Communication implementation?
A.Cisco CNIC
B.Cisco ROI methodology
C.needs-based competitive differentiator
D.computer telephony integration analyzer
Correct:B

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NO.6 Which of these Cisco Unified Communications products will most increase employee
productivity?
A.Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B.Cisco Unified Operations Manager
C.Cisco Unified MeetingPlace
D.Integrated Service Router
Correct:C

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NO.7 An emerging airline in South Asia wants to enhance its customer responsiveness. It already
has a web portal by means of which it offers online booking and reservation of tickets. In addition,
it would like to integrate a service by which customers can dial in via phone and be guided
through an interactive audio dialog allowing them to make reservations or book flight connections.
Which Cisco Unified Communications solution would be the best for this issue?
A.Cisco Unified Presence with integration of Microsoft Office Communicator
B.Cisco Unity with unified messaging and integrated call handlers
C.Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal with VoiceXML
D.Cisco Unified MeetingPlace with IBM Lotus Notes integration
Correct:C

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NO.8 Which feature is handled outside of Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A.call processing
B.signaling and device control
C.dial plan administration
D.RTP media path switching
E.directory services
F.programming interface to external applications
Correct:D

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NO.9 Which two statements regarding the advantages and benefits of security implementations in
Cisco Unified Communications solutions are true? (Choose two.)
A.The Cisco 1861 Integrate Services Router provides built-in security with hardware encryption and
decryption.
B.Voice clients are critical elements in the Cisco Self-Defending Network, which integrates security
throughout all aspects of the network.
C.Cisco Unified IP phones provide Extensible Markup Language (XML) capabilities to extend security
functions on a phone.
D.Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express is runs on Linux in order to protect against
vulnerabilities and attacks.
Correct:A B

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NO.10 Which three statements about Cisco Unified MeetingPlace are true? (Choose three.)
A.Cisco Unified MeetingPlace software can be installed on an MCS server platform.
B.Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Audio Server must be installed on an MCS server platform.
C.In order to implement video conferencing, you will need the Cisco Unified VC35xx series.
D.Cisco Unified MeetingPlace is a purely software-based solution.
E.Cisco Unified MeetingPlace is scalable up to 1000 simultaneous web conferences.
F.Cisco Unified MeetingPlace only supports voice and video conferences.
Correct:A C E

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Exam Name: Cisco (WAASFE-Wide Area Application Services for Field Engineers)
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NO.1 What important troubleshooting information will you draw for the Video Accelerator from the
WAE#show stat accelerator video?
A. Whether or not the WAE(Config)#accelerator video enable command has been issued
B. Troubleshooting of the Video Accelerator can only be done through the Central Manager GUI
C. The total Non-Windows Media and Non-Live Video Streams
D. The license status of the Video Accelerator
Answer: C

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NO.2 Exhibit:
Based on the following exhibit. Which two are the possible reasons the CORE1 WAE might be displayed
as "Offline"?
A. The Central Manager service is disabled
B. The WAE is powered off
C. The WAE is configured in the same VLAN as the server nodes
D. The HTTPS service is disabled
Answer: AB

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NO.3 In which two ways will you register and activate a WAE to the Central Manager? (Choose two.)
A. WAE(Config)#cms enable do active
B. The auto-activate icon in the Central Manager
C. WAE(Config)#cms enable
D. The quickstart setup procedure
Answer: CD

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NO.4 How many baseline device groups can be configured for the acceleration feature set?
A. Three
B. One
C. As many as needed
D. Two
Answer: B

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NO.5 The Cisco WAE Appliances provide a unified platform for hosting Cisco application acceleration and
WAN optimization solutions. Your customer complains that traffic has never been received by the remote
WAE device after deploying Cisco WAAS by use of WCCPv2 in an off-path configuration. Which two
parameters should be verified? (Choose two.)
A. Routing Configuration
B. Router IP Address
C. WCCP Status
D. Service group redirection
Answer: CD

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NO.6 Exhibit:
You work as a network engineer at Your company. You study the exhibit carefully.
The following diagram displays the Cisco WAAS configuration for your customer. Which WCCPv2
interception configuration should be applied to interface Serial0?
A. Redirect in / service group 62
B. Redirect out / service group 62
C. Redirect in / service group 61
D. Redirect out/service group 61
Answer: A

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NO.7 Your customer has recently completed a large expansion of one of their regional offices. They have
discovered that the WAE-512-2GB Edge WAE in that office has begun passing through some TCP
connections without optimizing those connections. What two actions would solve the problem? (Choose
two.)
A. Add more memory to the WAE
B. Add another WAE-512 edge WAE
C. Upgrade to a WAE-612 or WAE-7326
D. Bundle the WAE interfaces into a PortChannel
Answer: BC

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NO.8 Within Windows Server on WAAS, what are the Cisco-supported features? (Choose all that apply)
A. Active Directory
B. DNS
C. Windows Printing
D. DHCP
E. Internet Explorer
F. FTP services
G. Windows Media Streaming
Answer: ABCD

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NO.9 How to verify that the WAE has joined a Microsoft Windows domain correctly?
A. Click the Show Authentication Status button in Central Manager
B. Use the Windowsnetstat command
C. Use the Windowsnbtstat command
D. Execute the show windows-domain command on the WAE
Answer: A

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NO.10 Exhibit:
You work as a network engineer at Your company. You study the exhibit carefully.
A WAE in your environment is experiencing no HTTP acceleration. What is the problem according to the
output from the Central Manager?
A. HTTP and Video Accelerators cannot be enabled at the same time
B. The HTTP Accelerator is not enabled
C. DRE eliminates all need for HTTP acceleration
D. The Enterprise license is not installed
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which three must be configured when you configure an edge print queue? (Choose three.)
A. WAFS edge service
B. EPM Policy
C. Printer Name
D. device URL
Answer: ACD

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NO.12 Exhibit:
You work as a network engineer at Your company. You study the exhibit carefully.When troubleshooting
video licensing on a WAE, this Central Manager output is displayed.
Which two steps should be taken to enable the video license? (Choose two.)
A. Restart the WAE
B. Select the Enterprise Check Box
C. Select the Video Check Box
D. Select the Virtual-Blade Check Box
Answer: BC

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NO.13 Which setting should be used in the "Boot from" filed in the virtual blade configuration when an
operating system is first installed through an CD ISO image onto a virtual blade?
A. /local1/vbs/win2k8.iso
B. WAAS /local1/loca/vb folder
C. Floppy Disk
D. CD-ROM
E. hard disk
Answer: D

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NO.14 How to monitor optimization statistics for a given application across multiple WAE devices?
A. Create a separate application traffic policy for each application
B. Create a location group for all WAE devices on which that application is optimized
C. Ensure that each application resides on a different subnet
D. Create a device group for all WAE devices on which that application is optimized
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which command verifies that a WAE in-line card is intercepting traffic from the correct VLANs?
A. show wccp services
B. show wccp vlans inline
C. show int inlinegroup x/y
D. show ip access-lists
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 650-177
Exam Name: Cisco (SMB Solutions for Account Managers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 196 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-18

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NO.1 What is the difference between Cisco Catalyst 2960 LAN Base Series and the Lite series.
A. Only the Cisco Catalyst 2960 LAN Base Series can be managed
B. Only the Cisco Catalyst 2960LANLite Series supports Gigabit Ethernet
C. Only the Cisco Catalyst 2960LANLite Series supports Powerover Ethernet
D. Only the Cisco Catalyst 2960 LAN Base Seriesofferes enhanced security
Answer: D

Cisco   650-177   650-177 original questions   650-177

NO.2 Which three characteristics are indicators that a potential SMB customer is in the SBR-defined growth
phase? (Choose three.)
A. focusing on becoming more efficient
B. wanting greater connectivity for customers
C. requesting convergence of voice and data
D. providing a customer with a basic up-to-date website
E. needing rapid secure access to customer history, data, or buying behavior
Answer: ABC

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NO.3 What is a key purpose of the Solutions Recommendation Guide?
A. present Cisco products
B. provide a framework of tested and proven models
C. identify basic needs of the business
D. calculate the business need priority
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the primary purpose of IPS?
A. to scan packets for malicious activity
B. to provide basic firewall protection
C. to host secure remote communications
D. to host Internet connectivity
E. to provide AIM
Answer: A

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NO.5 Select the three foundational hardware components that comprise the Smart Business ommunication
System. (Choose three.)
A. IPcelerate IPsmartSuite
B. Cisco Unified Communication 500 series
C. Catalyst Express
D. CiscoUnifiedCallConnector
E. Cisco Monitor Directory
F. Cisco 500seriesphones
Answer: BCF

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NO.6 Which Cisco support service product targets customers with up to 48 users on a network where voice
communication is mission-critical to business operation?
A. CiscoSMARTnet for SBCS
B. Cisco Smart Care Service
C. SMARTnet Partner Service
D. Cisco Smart Foundation Service
E. Cisco Technical Assistance Center
Answer: A

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NO.7 What Cisco CE520 feature optimizes quality of service?
A. Cisco Configuration Assistant
B. Cisco Network Admission Control
C. Cisco Smart Assist
D. CiscoSmartports
Answer: D

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NO.8 What two technologies do SMB customers most often want to implement in the future.? (Choose two.)
A. Mobility
B. Optical
C. Telepresence
D. Voice
E. Data Center
Answer: AD

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NO.9 Which two CRM servers allow Cisco Unified Call Connector to be configured for connectivity?
(Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Dynamics
B. Salesforce.com
C. Oncontact
D. Siebel
E. ACT!
Answer: AB

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NO.10 Which Cisco support service product is sold, supported, and delivered by partners?
A. Cisco Smart Foundation Service
B. SMARTnet Partner Service
C. Cisco Smart Care Service
D. Cisco Technical Assistance Center
E. CiscoSMARTnet for SBCS
Answer: C

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NO.11 A distribution area provides an aggregation point for which components?
A. edge devices
B. aggregation switches
C. core devices
D. access-area switches
E. distribution devices
Answer: D

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NO.12 The Solutions Recommendation Guide is a framework for creating a customized SMB solution. In order
to create a customized solution, which two components are needed? (Choose two.)
A. implementation ratings determined
B. specific products and technology available
C. benefits to the business decided
D. business capabilities enabled
E. business challenges identified
Answer: BE

Cisco   650-177   650-177

NO.13 Increased productivity, minimized legal risks, and improvements in "green" operation can be easily
linked to Cisco solutions in which technology area?
A. routing and switching
B. web collaboration
C. on the destination network, between the server and a router
D. eCommerce
E. voice
F. security
Answer: D

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NO.14 In which areas do SMBs tend to require better products than found in retail stores?
A. voice, intranet, and security
B. wireless, intranet, and wide-area networking
C. wireless, security, and voice
D. security, voice, and wide-area networking
Answer: C

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NO.15 MightyResearch indicated that a significant percentage of SMBs are concerned about which factor in
a UC solution?
A. non-Cisco vendors providing more viable SMB solutions
B. costs out-weighing benefits
C. cost savings to justify replacing existing legacy systems
D. minimized call-center effectiveness
Answer: C

Cisco   650-177   650-177

NO.16 Why are consumer-grade access points and routers not the best choice for SMBs? (Choose two.)
A. They are not designed for multi-access-point networks.
B. They do not scale well.
C. They have higher total cost of ownership than some enterprise products.
D. Their upgrade paths compete directly against Cisco upgrade paths.
Answer: AB

Cisco test   650-177 questions   650-177

NO.17 Which two are elements of the operational-efficiency business challenge? (Choose two.)
A. improving business processes
B. making existing resources more productive
C. offering enhanced customer service
D. providing flexible channel and delivery options
Answer: AC

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NO.18 What resource would you recommend to a new Cisco partner for a variety of tools?
A. Channel Incentive program
B. Unified Communications for SMB
C. Partner Central
D. Steps to Success
E. Instructions: Number of answers: 1
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is a primary partner benefit of selling services?
A. easier customer sales cycle
B. increased margins
C. fewer customer call backs
D. available financing options
Answer: B

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NO.20 Identity authentication, protocol encryption, secure guest access, voice over WLAN features, and a
small device footprint are all highlights of what product in the wireless technology market?
A. wireless monitoring device
B. wireless LAN controller
C. wireless bridge
D. wireless management device
E. access point
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 642-188
Exam Name: Cisco (ITI Implementing Cisco TelePresence Installations)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-18

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NO.1 Which statement is correct when discussing the Cisco TelePresence System 1300.?
A. The system is designed to support meetings of six to eight participants
B. The system features three 65-inch screens, three cameras, microphones, and speakers
C. Voice-enabled switching is performed by the codec to select the active speaker in the room and
capture the video for the remote side
D. The power and Ethernet outlets must be positioned directly behind the unit
Answer: C

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NO.2 After connecting to a codec via WebGUI, you are prompted for a username and password. Which
username password combination is used on the codec by default?
A. Cisco, Cisco
B. admin, Cisco
C. Cisco, Cisco
D. admin, cisco
Answer: B

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NO.3 During your RRA assessment of a potential Cisco TelePresence System 1300 room you notice:
The HVAC diffuser has noticeable noise (measured at48 1dB) which sounds like rushing air
What three recommendations should be made to the customer? (Choose three.)
A. The customer should turn the fan level down on the HVAC system to insure the fan noise is minimized
in the Cisco TelePresence room
B. The customer should contact an HVAC specialist to review and recommend an appropriate solution
C. The customer should not worry about the HVAC fan noise because the Cisco TelePresence System
uses a noise suppression algorithm designed to identify HVAC fan noise and minimize those frequencies
D. The customer should replace the diffusers with a diffuser that is rated with a noise criterion of 10 or
greater
E. The customer should replace the ducting directly above the room with acoustically treated ducting to
remove the sound of rushing airflow
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.4 Which three statements are correct when tuning the camera on a Cisco TelePresence CTS-1xxx system?
(Choose three.)
A. Target placement should match the green and red boxes on the screen, respectively
B. Place the large target three feet behind the small target.
C. Place the large target five feet behind the small target
D. Tune the camera so that the red and green bars line up as closely as possible
E. Perform auto-adjust to optimize focus and sharpness
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
Identify the port number where the Audio Video expansion box should connect.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 9
F. 10
G. 11
H. 12
I. 13
Answer: H

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NO.6 The Cisco TelePresence System 1100 and Cisco TelePresence System 1300 mounting brackets has
limited side-to-side adjustability. What is the first thing to consider before you mount the bracket?
A. Attach the sliders on the bracket to the wall.
B. Level the bracket.
C. Verify with the customer where the conference table will be located, find the center of the conference
table, and then find the corresponding point on the mounting wall.
D. Measure the correct width between the drill holes of the mounting bracket.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two statements are correct when calibrating the Cisco Telepresence cameras?
(Choose two) A. If the room uses fixed artificial lighting, click the Disable radio button fur the Camera Auto
Brightness and Camera Auto Color Balance
B. If the Auto Adjust test to automatically adjust lighting and color balance fails, you may need to add
more light
C. If the room uses fixed artificial lighting, click the Enable- radio button for the Camera Auto Brightness
and Camera Auto Color Balance
D. If the room uses outside lighting, click the Disable radio button for the Camera Auto Brightness and
Camera Auto Color Balance
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which statement is correct when tuning the cameras by using the WebGUI of the Cisco TelePresence
codec?
A. If there is a noticeable flicker on the screen, the 50 Hz Flicker Reduction button will eliminate the flicker
and increase the image resolution.
B. If the user is 4 to 5 feet (1.2 to 1.5 m) away from the display, click the 4 feet radio button for the Focus
Distance radio choice. If the user is farther than 5 feet (1.5 m) away, click the 6 feet choice.
C. If the room uses outside lighting, click the Disable radio button for the Camera Auto Brightness and
Camera Auto Color Balance choices.
D. Auto Color Balance can produce the best results when the colors of the walls in your room are white or
gray.
Answer: B

Cisco   642-188   642-188 test   642-188

NO.9 Which is a design requirement for Cisco Telepresence room aesthetics?
A. Every room should be identical.
B. Maintain continuity in appearance among rooms
C. Carpet patterns and textures match from room to room
D. All rooms should be painted brown
E. The only wall treatment should be paint
Answer: B

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NO.10 During your assessment of a potential Cisco TelePresence System 1300 room, you notice:
The ceiling is 8 feel (2 4meters) high and currently illuminated with recessed parabolic light fixtures.
Which lighting recommendation is the most appropriate?
A. The Cisco Telepresence endpoint has a lighting facade which is designed to provide enough light for
the participants face and torso, so no lighting changes are required
B. The ceiling should be raised higher than 8 feet (2.4 meters) to accommodate appropriate light fixtures
for use with Telepresence
C. The existing fixtures are not ideal but are adequate for use with TelePresence
D. The existing fixtures should be replaced with recessed indirect light textures
E. No recommendation can be made until the lighting has been measured with a lux meter in the
appropriate zones
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the leveling process for the Cisco TelePresence System 1000 frame?
A. With only one display, there is no need to level the frame before attaching it to the wall
B. Attach the frame to the wall and level the frame by raising or lowering the feet.
C. Place a level on the middle and upper crossbars and adjust the feet as necessary to ensure that the
frame is horizontally level
D. Place a level on the side of the frame and adjust the feet as necessary to ensure that the frame is
vertically level
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the default configuration for displaying presentations on a Cisco Telepresence System 1000?
A. An external display for displaying presentations is part of the default configuration.
B. Presentations are displayed as presentation-in-picture.
C. Presentations are displayed on an external display and include a presentation codec.
D. A projector and screen are used to display presentations.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What are the two choices for focal distance on a CTS-500? (Choose two)
A. 3.5 ft (1.06 m)
B. 4 ft (1.22 m)
C. 6 ft (1.83 m)
D. 8 ft (2.44 m)
E. 8.5 ft (2.59 m)
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 The customer decides to use static IP addressing for the codec. Which three parameters must be
configured? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. IP address subnet mask
C. gateway IP address
D. NTP server IP address
E. DNS server IP address
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.15 Which statement is correct when discussing the microphone placement for the Cisco TelePresence
System 1000?
A. A microphone array is built into the frame of the Cisco TelePresence System 1000 so that a table
microphone is unnecessary.
B. Attach the microphone to the table by peeling the backing off the bottom of the microphone base and
stick the microphone to the alignment guide.
C. Place the microphone on the table approximately 18 inches (46 centimeters) forward of where the
participants will sit.
D. You can install the second microphone on the opposite side of the table to provide full-table
microphone coverage for audio-only conferences.
Answer: C

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NO.16 When using Auto-Collaborate, what two actions need to be done to display the laptop content after
connecting the cable? (Choose two.)
A. Press the Auto-Collaborate softkey
B. Initiate Auto-Collaborate on the codec s GUI
C. Set the laptop resolution to 1024x768
D. Set your laptop resolution to 1024x720
E. Use function key on the laptop to send signal to external display
Answer: C,E

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NO.17 When using HFR codec in a multipoint call, what happens when an endpoint without HFR calls in?
A. The entire call downgrades the data channel to 5 fps
B. The entire call downgrades the data channel to 5 fps but when the endpoint without HFR codec drops,
it automatically increases the data channel to 30 fps
C. The endpoint without the HFR shares data at 5 fps and all the other endpoints share at 3D fps
D. The call drops since there are different frame rates
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which option on the Cisco Telepresence System administration WebGUI allows selecting table type?
A. Troubleshooting --> Hardware Setup > Display
B. Troubleshooting > Hardware Setup -> Configuration
C. Troubleshooting -> Hardware Setup --> Camera
D. Troubleshooting -> Hardware Setup -> Other Devices
Answer: B

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NO.19 In the Cisco TelePresence administration WebGUI, the camera Auto Adjust can be used to check which
setting?
A. life size
B. zoom and focus
C. white color balance
D. HDMI input threshold
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which two statements about the Cisco TelePresence codec software upgrade process are true?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence codecs must have IP address information for the TFTP servers that the Cisco
Unified Communications Manager uses.
B. During the codec upgrade process, all plasma displays must be in the off position.
C. Cisco TelePresence codecs use H-264 to download system software images and configuration files.
D. To abort the upgrade, you can reboot the codec manually before the codec finishes downloading the
software image.
E. The peripherals upgrade can take up to 60 minutes to complete. Do not manually reboot the codec
during the peripherals upgrade.
Answer: A,E

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Exam Code: 642-627
Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing Cisco Intrusion Prevention System v7.0)
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Total Q&A: 165 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-18

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NO.1 In which CLI configuration mode is the Cisco IPS appliance management IP address configured?
A. global configuration ips(config)#
B. service network-access ips(config-net)#
C. service host network-settings ips(config-hos-net)#
D. service interface ips(config-int)#
Answer: C

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NO.2 The custom signature ID of a Cisco IPS appliance has which range of values?
A. 10000 to 19999
B. 20000 to 29999
C. 50000 to 59999
D. 60000 to 65000
E. 80000 to 90000
F. 1 to 20000
Answer: D

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3 / 4

NO.3 Which Cisco IPS NME interface is visible to the NME module but not visible in the router configuration
and acts as the sensing interface of the NME module?
A. ids-sensor 0/1 interface
B. ids-sensor 1/0 interface
C. gigabitEthernet 0/1
D. gigabitEthernet 1/0
E. management 0/1
F. management 1/0
Answer: C

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NO.4 / 4
1.Which three are global correlation network participation modes? (Choose three.)
A. off
B. partial participation
C. reputation filtering
D. detect
E. full participation
F. learning
Answer: A,B,E

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2.DRAG DROP
Answer:

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NO.6 Which three Cisco IPS cross-launch capabilities do Cisco Security Manager and Cisco Security MARS
support? (Choose three.)
A. Edit IPS signatures in Cisco Security Manager from a Cisco Security MARS query.
B. Create custom signatures in Cisco Security Manager from a Cisco Security MARS query.
C. Create event action filters in Cisco Security Manager from a Cisco Security MARS query.
D. Create a Cisco Security MARS drop rule from Cisco Security Manager policy.
E. Create a Cisco Security MARS user inspection rule from Cisco Security Manager policy.
F. Query Cisco Security MARS from Cisco Security Manager policy.
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.7 Which four parameters are used to configure how often the Cisco IPS appliance generates alerts when
a signature is firing? (Choose four.)
A. summary mode
B. summary interval
C. event count key
D. global summary threshold
E. summary key
F. event count
G. summary count
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H. event alert mode
Answer: A,B,D,F

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NO.8 Which two methods can be used together to configure a Cisco IPS signature set into detection mode
when tuning the Cisco IPS appliance to reduce false positives? (Choose two.)
A. Subtract all aggressive actions using event action filters.
B. Enable anomaly detection learning mode.
C. Enable verbose alerts using event action overrides.
D. Decrease the number of events required to trigger the signature.
E. Increase the maximum inter-event interval of the signature.
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 What are four properties of an IPS signature? (Choose four.)
A. reputation rating
B. fidelity rating
C. summarization strategy
D. signature engine
E. global correlation mode
F. signature ID and signature status
Answer: B,C,D,F

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NO.10 When upgrading a Cisco IPS AIM or IPS NME using manual upgrade, what must be performed before
installing the upgrade?
A. Disable the heartbeat reset on the router.
B. Enable fail-open IPS mode.
C. Enable the Router Blade Configuration Protocol.
D. Gracefully halt the operating system on the Cisco IPS AIM or IPS NME.
Answer: A

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