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Exam Code: L50-502
Exam Name: LSI (LSI SVM5 Solutions Architect)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 114 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A customer is using SVM to provide five volumes to a Windows 2008 server. These volumes have
been converted to dynamic disks and striped using the OS. Which consideration should be met if the
customer would like to use PiTs and views to access this data from another server?
A. The data cannot be accessed from another host.
B. multiMigrate should be used to migrate the data to a single volume.
C. A consistency group should be defined for the five volumes.
D. The standard agent must be used to access the view.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your customer has recently begun using hourly PiTs for rapid application recovery. The desire is to
implement a data retention plan where each hourly PiT is kept on disk until 8:00 PM. Four weeks?worth
the customer would like to keep a daily snapshot copy of the data for seven days. Also the customer
wants to keep four weeks worth of weekly views on a secondary, low cost array. The solution should
minimize disk utilization on the primary array. Which three tasks would you implement to accomplish this
goal? (Choose three.)
A. Create a multiCopy of the application data and keep seven copies.
B. Create a View on the most recent PiT each night at 8:00 PM and retain for seven days.
C. Create a multiCopy of the Sunday View to the second array and keep four copies.
D. Purge PiTs on the source volume at 8:00 PM to keep seven PiTs.
E. Use multiMigrate to move the Sunday View to the second array and keep four copies.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 You have a disaster recovery scenario where newly created SVM Views will be presented to an ESX
server or ESX cluster at a secondary site. To avoid importing the views as new volumes, which ESX
advanced setting should be enabled?
A. port retry
B. resignature
C. device reset
D. LUN reset
Answer: B

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NO.4 A retailer with a SQL database must pull statistics from a production database but would like to do so
without interfering with production work. The statistics are required by three different departments. Which
two methods could be used to do this? (Choose two.)
A. Use multiMigrate on the database volume with one job and assign the destination volume to the three
hosts.
B. Use multiMirror asynchronous on the database volume with three jobs and assign the jobs to the three
hosts.
C. Use multiView on the database volume to create a PiT; create three views for that PiT and assign it to
the three hosts.
D. Use multiCopy on the database volume with three jobs and assign each destination volume to the
three hosts.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 You are implementing zoning for an SVM 5 environment. Which rule should you observe when zoning
servers with DPMs?
A. There should be no more than four paths per DPM to any one server.
B. There should be no more than two paths per DPM to any one server.
C. All servers and DPM front-end ports should reside in the same zone.
D. The servers should be zoned directly with the storage controllers.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer would like to implement SVM into their current storage environment and has asked you to
provide a detailed overview of both the SVM and DPM architectures. Where would you suggest that they
locate the required information?
A. Host Compatibility Matrix
B. Deployment Guide for SVM 4
C. SVM User Guide
D. Configuration Knowledge Base for SVM 5
Answer: C

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NO.7 Your customer would like to consolidate multiple storage arrays which are currently under-utilized. The
SAN is not currently managed by SVM. The customer desires the minimal impact to their applications.
Which two statements describe the process to consolidate the arrays under SVM? (Choose two.)
A. Import existing LUNs into SVM pools.
B. Use multiMigrate to move the volumes to the desired array.
C. Use asynchronous mirror to move the volumes to the desired array.
D. Use multiMigrate to move the volumes to the desired array and remove SVM.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Your customer wants to run backups at any time of the day, using snapshots of production data, leaving
production systems fully online and available during backups. Which SVM application would be used to
achieve their online backup requirement?
A. multiMigrate
B. multiMirror
C. multiView
D. SVM volume management
Answer: C

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NO.9 Your customer is looking for a high availability solution for company-critical data with an RPO of 0.
Periodically the customer would like to verify the integrity of replicated data. You configure two SVM
domains on two sites and use synchronous multiMirror between the two sites. What are two methods to
verify the data? (Choose two.)
A. Create a PiT on the synchronous multiMirror group, create a view on the second synchronous mirror
job PiT and assign it to a host.
B. Use multiCopy for one of the synchronous multiMirror jobs and then assign the destination volume to a
host.
C. Create a PiT on the second synchronous multiMirror job, create a view for that PiT and assign it to a
host.
D. Create a PiT on the first synchronous multiMirror job, create a view for that PiT and assign it to a host.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 You are trying to determine the optimal solution to meet the data recovery needs of a customer. What
will provide your customer with the smallest recovery time objective and array failure protection?
A. asynchronous multiMirror
B. multiView
C. multiCopy
D. synchronous multiMirror
Answer: D

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NO.11 You are deploying ESX servers with SVM. You have followed the recommended best practice and
have designed your front-end SAN to have redundant fabrics and allowed for both HBA initiator ports to
see both DPMs. You have created SVM volumes and have presented them to your ESX servers. After
performing an HBA rescan from an ESX server, how many paths should be available to each LUN?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.12 A customer has an AIX high availability cluster multiprocessing (HACMP) environment and would like to
use SVM to provide additional storage to the cluster. Which consideration must be met to access the new
volumes?
A. The AIX light agent must be installed on all nodes.
B. The new volumes must be imported into a volume group.
C. The LSI failover driver must be installed on all nodes.
D. The MPIO driver must be disabled on all nodes.
Answer: A

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NO.13 A financial institution has an Oracle application that is critical to its business. Which three factors will
enable you to assess how to provide high availability and recovery? (Choose three.)
A. application recovery time objective
B. application recovery point objective
C. distance between data centers
D. number of network adapters
E. distance between servers
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.14 Which storage arrays can be migrated under SVM 5 control.?
A. SAS storage array
B. iSCSI storage array
C. FC storage array
D. Infiniband storage array
Answer: C

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NO.15 A customer has an environment that includes existing VMware disks that must be imported into SVM.
VMware marks a signature on the volumes which identifies the controller WWNN and LUN ID. Which
statement describes what you need to take into account when migrating the VMware disks under SVM
control?
A. VMware will not resignature automatically.
B. VMware will present the same LUN ID after importing.
C. VMware will modify the DPM WWNN to match the array WWNN.
D. VMware resignaturing must be set correctly.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: GSSP-JaVa
Exam Name: GIAC (GIAC Secure Software Programmer – Java)
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Total Q&A: 275 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the following elements are the subelements of the mime-mapping element in a
deployment descriptor file?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. exception-type
B. error-code
C. extension
D. mime-type
E. servlet-class
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Mark works as a Programmer for InfoTech Inc. He develops a Website that uses HTML and processes
HTML validation. Which of the following are the advantages of the HTML application?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It provides password protection for a Web page or directory
B. It can be accessed by more visitors.
C. It provides faster loading.
D. It is easier to update and maintain the site.
E. It protects the source or images of a HTML Web page.
F. It puts less load on the server.
Answer: B,C,D,F

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NO.3 Mark works as a Programmer for InfoTech Inc. He develops a deployment descriptor code that contains
three valid
<security-constraint> elements.
All of them constraining a Web resource Res1, the
<auth-constraint> sub-element of the <security-constraint>
elements are as follows.
<auth-constraint>Admin</auth-constraint>
<auth-constraint>Manager</auth-constraint>
<auth-constraint/>
Which of the following can access the resource Res1?
A. Only Manager can access the resource.
B. No one can access the resource.
C. Everyone can access the resource.
D. Only Admin can access the resource.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You work as a Software Developer for UcTech Inc. You create a session using the HttpSession
interface. You want the attributes to be informed when the session is moved from one JVM to another and
also when an attribute is added or removed from the session. Which of the following interfaces can you
use to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. HttpSessionBindingListener
B. HttpSessionListener
C. HttpSessionActivationListener
D. HttpSessionAttributeListener
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Which of the following functions are performed by methods of the
HttpSessionActivationListener interface?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Notifying the object when it is bound to a session.
B. Notifying an attribute that a session has just migrated from one JVM to another.
C. Notifying the object when it is unbound from a session.
D. Notifying an attribute that a session is about to migrate from one JVM to another.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which of the following statements are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. An inner class cannot be defined as private.
B. An inner class cannot be defined as protected.
C. An inner class can be defined as private.
D. An inner class can extend another class.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 John works as a Software Developer for VenTech Inc. He writes the following code using Java.
public class vClass extends Thread
{
public static void main(String args[])
{
vClass vc=new vClass();
vc.run();
}
public void start()
{
for(int k=0;k<20;k++)
{
System.out.println("The value of k = "+k);
}
}
}
What will happen when he attempts to compile and execute the application.?
A. The application will compile successfully and the values from 0 to 19 will be displayed as the output.
B. A compile-time error will occur indicating that no run() method is defined for the Thread class.
C. A runtime error will occur indicating that no run() method is defined for the Thread class.
D. The application will compile successfully but will not display anything as the output.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You have written the following code snippet.
1. public class Read {
2. protected int ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
3. }
4. class Text extends Read {
5. /*insert code here*/
6. }
Which of the following methods, inserted independently at line 5, will compile?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. private int ReadText(long x) { return 0; }
B. protected long ReadText(int x, int y) { return 0; }
C. protected long ReadText(long x) { return 0; }
D. protected int ReadText(long x) { return 0; }
E. private int ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
F. public int ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
G. protected long ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
Answer: A,B,C,D,F

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NO.9 Which of the following methods of the EJBContext interface can be called by both the BMT and CMT
beans?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. getCallerPrincipal()
B. getRollbackOnly()
C. getUserTransaction()
D. isCallerInRole()
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 Which of the following statements about programmatic security are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The bean provider is responsible for writing code for programmatic security.
B. It is also called as instance level security.
C. It is implemented using methods of the EJBContext interface.
D. It is implemented using the methods of the UserTransaction interface.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.11 Mark works as a Programmer for InfoTech Inc. He develops the following deployment descriptor code.
<web-app . . . .
>
<display-name>A Secure Application</display-name><servlet>
..
.
<security-role-ref
>
<role-name>Manager</role-name>
<role-link>Admin</role-link>
</security-role-ref>
</servlet>
<security-role>
<role-name>Programmer</role-name>
</security-role>
<security-role>
<role-name>Admin</role-name>
</security-role>
<security-role>
<role-name>Employee</role-name>
</security-role>
</web-app>
Which of the following is a valid isUserInRole() method call that can be made if request is the
HttpServletRequest request?
A. request.isUserInRole("Programmer");
B. request.isUserInRole("Manager");
C. request.isUserInRole("Admin");
D. request.isUserInRole("Employee");
Answer: B

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NO.12 Given a code of a class named PrintString that prints a string.
1. public class PrintString{
2. public static void main(String args[]){
3. /*insert code here */
4. /* insert code here */
5. System.out.println(str);
6. }
7. }
Which of the following code fragments can be inserted in the class PrintString to print the output
"4247"?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. StringBuilder str= new StringBuilder("123456789");
str.delete(0,3).replace(1,3,"24").delete(4,6);
B. StringBuffer str= new StringBuffer("123456789");
str.delete(0,3).replace(1,3,"24").delete(4,6);
C. StringBuffer str=new StringBuffer("123456789");
str.substring(3,6).delete(1,2).insert(1,"24");
D. StringBuilder str= new StringBuilder("123456789");
str.deleteCharAt(6).replace(1,3,"24").delete(0,3);
E. String str="123456789";
str=(str-"123").replace(1,3,"24")-"89";
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 Which of the following statements is true?
A. All UTF characters are eight bits long.
B. All UTF characters are all sixteen bits long.
C. All UTF characters are twenty four bits long.
D. All bytecode characters are sixteen bits long.
E. All unicode characters are sixteen bits long.
Answer: E

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NO.14 Which of the following statements correctly describe the features of the singleton pattern?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Singletons are used to control object creation by limiting the number to one but allowing the flexibility to
create more objects if the situation changes.
B. Singletons can only be stateless, providing utility functions that need no more information than their
parameters.
C. A singleton class may disappear if no object holds a reference to the Singleton object, and it will be
reloaded later when the singleton is needed again.
D. The behavior of a singleton can be obtained by static fields and methods such as
java.lang.Math.sin(double).
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.15 Which of the following classes is an engine class that provides an opaque representation of
cryptographic parameters?
A. DSAPublicKeySpec
B. AlgorithmParameterGenerator
C. DSAParameterSpec
D. AlgorithmParameters
Answer: D

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NO.16 John works as a Programmer for Technostar Inc. He writes the following code using Java.
1. class WrapperClass{
2. public static void main(String[] argv){
3. String str2 = Double.toString(12);
4. String str1 = Double.toHexString(12);
5. System.out.println(str1+str2);
6. }
7. }
What will happen when John attempts to compile and execute the code?
A. It will not compile because the Double class does not contain the toHexString() method.
B. It will compile and execute successfully and will display 8p312 as the output.
C. It will compile and execute successfully and will display 0x1.8p312.0 as the output.
D. It will not compile because the Double class does not contain the toString() method.
Answer: C

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NO.17 You work as a programmer for PassGuide.Inc. You have a session object named session1 with an
attribute named Attribute1, and an HttpSessionBindingEvent object binding1 bound to session1.
Which of the following will be used to retrieve Attribute1?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Object obj=binding1.getSession().getAttribute("Attribute1");
B. Object obj=binding1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
C. Long MyAttribute=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
D. String str1=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
E. Object obj=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
Answer: A,E

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NO.18 Which of the following deployment descriptor elements must contain the <transport-guarantee>
element as its mandatory sub-element?
A. <user-data-constraint>
B. <web-resource-collection>
C. <auth-constraint>
D. <login-config>
Answer: A

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NO.19 Mark writes a class Practice.java. This class needs to access the com.bar.Test class that is stored in
the Test.jar file in the directory /practice. How would you compile your code?
A. javac -classpath /practice/Test.jar Practice.java
B. javac -classpath /practice/ Practice.java
C. javac -classpath /practice/Test.jar/com/bar Practice.java
D. javac -classpath /practice Practice.java
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following statements about a JAR file are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It cannot be accessed through a class path, nor they can be used by java and javac.
B. It is used to compress and archive data.
C. It can be moved from one computer to another.
D. It is created by using the jar command.
Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Name: Google (Google Reporting and Analysis Exam Practice Test)
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Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You are configuring goals for a large complex website. How many goals can you create for each website
profile in Google Analytics?
A. 20
B. 100
C. 50
D. 10
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are a Google AdWords consultant for a client. You've created a Google AdWords campaign for
your client's website and you've identified 30 keywords for the campaign. You'd like to use a Google tool
to help you identify additional keywords through synonyms and different spellings.
What Google AdWords tool would you use?
A. Keyword Tool Supercharger
B. Google Analytics
C. Keyword Tool
D. AdWords Editor
Answer: C

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NO.3 What reporting portion of Google Analytics would you examine if you're interested in seeing your most
popular pages in your website?
A. E-commerce
B. Content
C. Web page views
D. Goals
Answer: B

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NO.4 Doug is a Google AdWords consultant to a client who is using conversion tracking. The client's goal is
to bring web visitors to his website, and to get the clients sign up for a free newsletter. The client does not
sell a product or service as a result of the conversion, but only the free newsletter is offered. The client
has asked Doug to calculate the return on investment, for the conversions that have been made as a
result of the Google AdWords campaign. If the client is not selling a product or service, how can Doug find
the return on investment?
A. Doug would need to know the value of the newsletter.
B. Doug needs to know the product cost of the client, to find the return on investment.
C. You can't track the ROI if there's nothing for sale as a result of the conversion.
D. Doug needs to know what the final cost of the newsletter would be.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Ben is reviewing the Google Analytics report for his website. He's examining the e-commerce reports
to determine how well his sales have been in proportion to the traffic he's received. Ben would like to see
the ratio of actual sales from his website in relation to the amount of traffic he's received. Within the
e-commerce section of Google Analytics what report should Ben utilize?
A. Total revenue
B. Visits to Purchase
C. Conversion rate
D. Average order value
Answer: C

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NO.6 Google determines a quality score to evaluate keyword relevance. The higher the quality score, the
better the ad will perform for your site. There are several factors that go into determining your quality
score, which include your clickthrough rate, the relevance of your ad text, keyword, and what is the other
factor?
A. Domain name
B. History of Google AdWords
C. Negative keywords
D. Landing page
Answer: D

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NO.7 How is an ad's Clickthrough rate calculated?
A. It's the number of clicks an ad receives divided by the number of impressions.
B. It's the number of clicks an ad receives from anywhere in the Google Search or Google Content
Network.
C. It's the total number of clicks an ad receives from the Google Content Network.
D. It's the number of clicks an ad receives divided by the cost of each click.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Holly is the webmaster for her company's website and she would like to install and configure Google
Analytics. She has configured her website for the Google Analytics code but is uncertain on what pages
she should install the tracking code. Where does Holly need to install the Google Analytics code ga.js in
her website?
A. On her home page
B. On her index page
C. On her Google Analytics destination URL
D. On every page of her website
Answer: D

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NO.9 Jane is using Google AdWords and she's receiving a moderate return on investment for budget. Jane
would like to use a targeting tool to help her improve her Google AdWords program. Which of the
following is a target tool that will help Jane to increase her ROI for her Google AdWords?
A. Conversion Tracking
B. Google Analytics
C. Keyword Tool
D. Traffic Estimator
Answer: C

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NO.10 When you configure a new action for Google AdWords conversion tracking, there is a customized field
called "other" and four other tracking purpose fields. Which of the following is not a valid tracking purpose
for conversion tracking?
A. Download
B. Signup
C. View of a key page
D. Purchase/Sale
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between Google AdWords and the
quality score?
A. The higher a keyword's Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad
position.
B. The lower a keyword's Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad
position.
C. The higher a keyword's Quality Score, the better its ad position.
D. The higher a keyword's Quality Score, the higher the price you pay for each click and the better its ad
position.
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are trying to determine the return on investment for a Google AdWords campaign for a client.
Which of the following is the correct formula for finding the return on investment for Google AdWords.?
A. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)/Revenue from Sales
B. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)/Duration of Ad
C. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)/Advertising costs
D. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)
Answer: C

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NO.13 Joan is about to enroll in the Google AdWords for her travel agency for her European business. She
wants to target clients throughout Europe using English, Spanish, French, and Flemish ads.
Which of the following is the best advice you could offer Joan about Google AdWords, to target multiple
languages?
A. Create four ads - one for each language.
B. Create four ad groups - one for each language.
C. Create four campaigns - one for each language.
D. Use English only, as it's the most common of the four languages she's targeting.
Answer: C

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NO.14 In Google AdWords there are two places where you can see the information for the Placement
Performance Report. The first is through the Reporting tab and the actual Placement Performance report.
Where else can you see the information in the Placement Performance Report in Google AdWords?
A. You can have the report emailed to you in .csv format.
B. You can see the details on your Keywords tab.
C. You can see the details on your Account Performance Tab.
D. You can see the details on the Networks tab.
Answer: D

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NO.15 You are a Google AdWords consultant for your client and you're helping them optimize their Google
AdWords ads to increase their return on investment. Google recommend three optimization approaches
to increase return on investment. Which of the following is NOT an activity that you should do to improve
ROI for your client's ads?
A. Define a clear call-to-action
B. Filter out unqualified clicks
C. Relate ads to their landing pages
D. Include deals and benefits
Answer: D

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NO.16 You have added "coffee cups" as a keyword to your Google AdWords campaign. Which of the
following Google searches would cause your ad to display?
A. Only searches for "coffee cups" as it's using the exact match options.
B. Only search for "coffee cups" (lower cased) as it's using the case sensitive options.
C. Any queries that search for "coffee cups" in quotation marks.
D. Any queries that include "coffee cups" in the search, such as yellow coffee cups or coffee cups sale.
Answer: D

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NO.17 You are a Google AdWords consultant to a company that sells magic tricks, stage props, and costumes
for theatres. Their website is robust, full of good articles and keywords, and
wellorganized.
As their new Google AdWords consultant, which one of the following AdWords strategies would you
recommend for their different lines of products?
A. Create separate campaigns for product line: one for magic tricks, one for stage props, and one for
costumes.
B. Create one campaign for all of their products to maximize ad exposure.
C. Create a campaign based on their products and use placements to target their audience.
D. Create keywords that are specific to purchasing magic tricks, stage props, or costumes.
Answer: A

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NO.18 You are exploring Google Analytics for a website you have created. In Google Analytics, you would like
to configure the dashboard's graph to look like the one in the figure below. What are the appropriate steps
to create this graph measuring total visits and new visits for your website?
A. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Compare Two Metrics," and
then choose Visits and % New Visits.
B. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Compare Two Metrics," and
then choose Visitors and % New Visitors.
C. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Multiple Metrics," and then
choose Visitors and % New Visitors.
D. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Multiple Metrics," and then
choose Visits and % New Visits.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Mark is configured Google Analytics for his blog. Mark does not sell any products on his blog as he
uses it to market his public speaking business. Mark would, however, like to assign a dollar value for
customers that complete the 'contact me' field on his website to track return on investment for the
marketing he has done to bring people to the site. If Mark considers each lead worth $50 what field in the
configuration of the goals in Google Analytics would Mark add the $50 value to?
A. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website he would not be able to track dollar amounts
through Google Analytics.
B. Mark can enter 2500 in the 'metric goal' field in the Google Analytics configuration and then choose
"dollars" in the currency value.
C. Mark can simply enter $25 in the 'goal value' field in the Google Analytics configuration of the goal he
has created for the 'contact me' form on his website.
D. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website but he can enter 25 in the "goal
completion" field and know the points are actually $25 towards his ROI.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Holly is creating a new custom report in Google Analytics. When Holly creates a new report how many
dimensions can she include in the report?
A. Seven
B. One
C. Five
D. Ten
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 9A0-136
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe LiveCycle ES2 Core ACE Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 89 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which statement about resource files when exporting an application to a LiveCycle Archive
(LCA)
is true?
A. All resources must be included in the LCA.
B. The user can only choose to include Adobe file types in the LCA.
C. The user can choose to include any resource files in the LCA.
D. No resource files can be included in the LCA.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You have created a process to convert various document types to PDF using the Create PDF
operation of the Generate PDF service. You want to add logic to your process to send an email
message if a file type fails to convert to PDF because it is not supported. Which two approaches
are best suited to handle this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. On the Create PDF operation, create a fault route from the activity and select the
FileFormatNotSupported exception to capture the error
B. Create a new process with an Exception event Start Point and use that event to capture the
error
C. Add the Exception event type to the Create PDF operation
D. Use the log file output from the Create PDF operation to capture the error
E. Add a route that includes the business logic to test for a failed conversion
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 You have created a LiveCycle process that must be invoked from a .NET application written in
C#.
Which LiveCycle endpoint should you use?
A. email
B. EJB
C. SOAP
D. Remoting
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three functional descriptions can be achieved using LiveCycle common services?
(Choose
three.)
A. Generate a PDF from a SWF file
B. Remove password encryption from a PDF
C. Create a PDF portfolio
D. Send a document to a network printer
E. Convert a PDF document to XDP format
F. Write a PDF document to the file system
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.5 Which is a reason to use a gateway task that is created with multiple branches of execution?
A. To visually organize your process map.
B. To choose one path among others, based on a data value.
C. To map different possible designs, choosing one of them when more is known about the
process.
D. To allow execution in parallel.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A process fails while running in a production environment. Which should you verify as a first
step
in determining the problem?
A. Application server log file
B. Database log file
C. Configuration manager log file
D. Application server boot log file
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which three functional descriptions can be achieved by using LiveCycle Foundation Services
as
steps within a process? (Choose three.)
A. Get information about a list of files located on a public FTP site
B. Execute an LDAP query parameterized with process data
C. Determine the ID of the most recent person to modify a local file
D. Read a repository resource into a process variable
E. Configure a JDBC datasource using credentials specified in process data
F. Combine multiple documents into a single PDF document
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 You have modified the source code for an existing custom component currently deployed in
LiveCycle. What should you do to deploy the revised component?
A. Uninstall the existing component and install the new component file via LiveCycle
Administration console
B. Stop the currently deployed component and select Patch Component via Livecycle
Workbench’s Component view
C. Uninstall the currently deployed component and select install via Livecycle Workbench’s
Component view
D. Stop the existing component service and patch the new service via LiveCycle Administration
console
Answer: B

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NO.9 An end-user needs privileges for managing PKI credentials. Which role should you assign?
A. Document Services Administrator
B. Security Administrator
C. Credential Administrator
D. Trust Administrator
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which statement about a custom component is NOT true?
A. The component.xml file must be at the root of the component
B. The required libraries can be located anywhere in the component
C. The custom component must have a META?INF\Manifest.MF file
D. The custom component must have the .jar extension
Answer: C

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NO.1 You want to reduce the size of a PDF document. You also want to control quality trade-offs for
the size reduction. Which command should you use?
A.Advanced > PDF Optimizer
B.Document > Reduce File Size
C.Document > Examine Document
D.Advanced > Document Processing > Set Document Actions
Correct:A

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NO.2 Which file format when embedded in a PDF document can be played in Adobe Reader 9 or
Adobe Acrobat 9, without additional software?
A.MP3
B.Flash
C.QuickTime
D.Windows Media
Correct:B

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NO.3 You are using the TouchUp Reading Order tool to enable the accessibility of a PDF document.
You want to ensure that text within the tagged area is defined as image and is NOT read aloud by
screen readers. Which option should you choose?
A.Text
B.Table
C.Figure
D.Figure/Caption
Correct:C

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NO.4 You are working in form editing mode. You want to check the tab order of your form fields.
What should you do?
A.Select Forms > Highlight Fields
B.Click in a form field and press Tab.
C.Select Forms > Edit Fields > Show Tab Numbers.
D.Right-click (Windows) or Control-click (Mac OS) a form field and select Properties.
Correct:C

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NO.5 You have chosen Create PDF from Web Page. You have selected the option to get 2 levels.
Which setting ensures you only capture pages that are subordinate to the specified URL?
A.Stay on same path
B.Stay on same server
C.Create PDF tags in the General tab of the Web Page Conversion Settings
D.Create bookmarks in the General tab of the Web Page Conversion Settings
Correct:A

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NO.6 Which file type will Acrobat Distiller convert to a PDF document?
A..ps
B..doc
C..psd
D..indd
Correct:A

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NO.7 You want to add an image to your PDF document. What should you do?
A.Click on the page with the Select Object tool.
B.Click on the page with the TouchUp Object tool.
C.Right-click on the page with the Select Object tool.
D.Right-click on the page with the TouchUp Object tool.
Correct:D

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NO.8 Which Creative Suite application allows you to create a tagged PDF document?
A.Flash
B.InDesign
C.Photoshop
D.Dreamweaver
Correct:B

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NO.9 You are managing form data from recipients who have responded to a distributed survey. You
want to edit the location of the response file. Which command should you choose?
A.Forms > Track Forms
B.Forms > Compile Returned Forms
C.Forms > Manage Form Data > Import Form Data
D.Forms > Manage Form Data > Export Form Data
Correct:A

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NO.10 How do you indicate which two PDF documents will be compared when you choose the
Compare Documents command?
A.Before selecting the Compare Documents command there must be no documents open.
B.You must open both PDF files that will be used in the comparison before selecting the Compare
Documents command.
C.At least one document used in the comparison must be open and be the active document before
selecting the Compare Documents command.
D.Regardless of which documents are open, you can select the two documents that will be compared
from within the Compare Documents dialog box after
E.
Correct:D

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NO.11 You are working on a Windows PC. Where will you find the option to create a custom page size
when using Adobe PDF printer in Microsoft Word?
A.Tools > Options
B.Acrobat preferences
C.Layout tab of the Adobe PDF Document Properties dialog box
D.Adobe PDF Settings tab of the Adobe PDF Document Properties dialog box
Correct:D

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NO.12 You want to share a PDF document. You want everyone to see and to be able to control the page
view of the document. Which should you choose from the Collaborate button on the task bar?
A.Share My Screen
B.Send Collaborate Live
C.Create Buzzword Document
D.Share Documents on Acrobat.com
Correct:B

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NO.13 You are creating a PDF document from within Microsoft Word. Which should you choose in
order to customize which paragraphs will automatically become bookmarks?
A.Tools > Options
B.File > Page Setup
C.Format > Styles and Formatting
D.Adobe PDF > Change Conversion Settings
Correct:D

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NO.14 You want to collaborate on a document with other people. The reviewers do NOT have access
to a common server and are using a version of Adobe Reader or Adobe Acrobat earlier than
Adobe Acrobat 9. How should you conduct the review?
A.as a PDF Portfolio review
B.as an e-mail based review
C.as an accessible PDF review
D.as a shared review using Acrobat.com
Correct:B

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NO.15 You have created bookmarks for your PDF document. Which formatting option is available for
bookmarks?
A.text size
B.line spacing
C.font selection
D.character width
Correct:A

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NO.16 You are using Adobe Illustrator CS3. You want to create an Adobe PDF document from your
Illustrator document. Which should you choose from the File menu?
A.Place
B.Export
C.Save As
D.Save for Web Devices
Correct:C

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NO.17 You are creating a PDF document by using Acrobat Distiller. You want to create a PDF document
that is suitable for long-term archiving. Which Adobe PDF Setting should you choose?
A.Standard
B.PDF/A-1b
C.PDF/X-1a
D.Press Quality
Correct:B

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NO.18 You are working in the Preflight dialog box. Which should you choose to create a preflight
droplet?
A.Profiles tab
B.Standards tab
C.Options menu
D.Further Options in the Profiles tab
Correct:C

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NO.19 Which PDFMaker setting is specific to creating a PDF document from Microsoft Excel?
A.Convert Multimedia
B.Convert Comments
C.Embed Scale Information
D.Embed Index For Faster Search
Correct:B

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NO.20 You are using Microsoft Word. Which PDF creation method converts your source document to
PostScript and feeds it directly to Distiller for conversion to PDF without manually starting
Distiller?
A.Save As
B.Acrobat Distiller
C.Adobe PDFMaker
D.Adobe PDF Printer
Correct:D

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Exam Code: 9A0-081
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe LiveCycle ES Application Developer Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You want to process (i.e. extract data) a policy protected PDF document that is on a server. Which
operation is necessary prior to processing the PDF document?
A.Revoke license
B.Remove Policy Security
C.Unlock Policy Protected PDF
D.Set Value that writes the document into a temporary variable
Answer:C

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NO.2 With which does the workspace-theme.swf need to be directly packaged?
A.workpace-runtime.swc
B.adobe-livecycle-jboss.ear
C.adobe-workspace-client.ear
D.adobe-workspace-client.war
Answer:D

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NO.3 What does the package lc.domain contain?
A.The interfaces that are used to communicate with LiveCycle ES server.
B.The classes that are used to communicate with LiveCycle ES server directly.
C.The classes that encapsulate LiveCycle ES business concepts such as tasks, endpoints, queues.
D.The interfaces that are used to expose the LiveCycle ES business concepts such as tasks, endpoint,
queues.
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which statement about the users specified in the Visible Users and Groups category is true?
A.They can create policies in the policy set.
B.They can be included as principals in a policy.
C.They can apply a policy from the policy set to a PDF.
D.They can open a PDF document that has been protected with a policy from the policy set.
Answer:B

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NO.5 A user is listed as a document publisher in a policy set. Which task can they complete?
A.Create a policy within the policy set.
B.Apply any policy to any PDF document.
C.Apply a policy to a PDF document they have created.
D.Apply any policy from the policy set to any PDF document.
Answer:D

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NO.6 Assuming they have the switch policy permission, which two users can revoke a PDF document?
(Choose two.)
A.document recipient
B.document publisher
C.document distributor
D.policy set coordinator
Answer:B D

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NO.7 Which two permissions does a document publisher have and a regular policy member does NOT have?
(Choose two.)
A.extract data
B.switch policy
C.delete document
D.revoke document
E.document modify
F.filling in form fields and signing
Answer:B D

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NO.8 You are creating a policy set. At which level can you specify Visible Users and Groups?
A.group
B.domain
C.individual user
D.organizational unit
Answer:B

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NO.9 Which type of key is used by Rights Management to encrypt a document?
A.A 256 bit AES Symmetric key.
B.A 128 bit AES Symmetric key.
C.A 128 bit AES Asymmetric key.
D.The private key portion of a 1024 bit Asymmetric key pair.
Answer:B

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NO.10 You are customizing styles by using the lc.css style sheet. What is represented by any style that is in
lower case beginning with a dot (for example, .loginSplash)?
A.The Selector.
B.A global style.
C.A Component (Class).
D.A stylename property of a Component.
Answer:D

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NO.1 If one has a Service Health dashboard widget included on a dashboard, will all newly created Services
automatically appear on that dashboard widget?
A. Yes, always.
B. It depends on whether all of the segments initialize their baseline.
C. It depends on what criteria was used when defining the dashboard widget.
D. It depends on which user defined and committed the Service.
E. It depends on how many Services have already been configured.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following supports the largest number of Cascade analytics?
A. Express
B. Standard Profiler
C. Enterprise Profiler
D. B and C
E. A, B, and C
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the default credentials to log into the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface?
A. admin/admin
B. root/sharkappliance
C. root/root
D. root/riverbed
E. admin/cacetech
Answer: A

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NO.4 Outgoing Mail Server (SMTP) Settings enable Cascade Profiler to: (Select 2)
A. receive mail from others.
B. send reports.
C. send disk failure notifications.
D. send alerts.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 How do you configure a new user for the Cascade Shark appliance?
A. From the User Management section of the Web Interface
B. From the Basic Settings page of the Web Interface
C. From the Users menu of Cascade Pilot
D. From the Advanced Settings page of the Web Interface
Answer: A

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NO.6 To organize hosts into logical arrangements what is important to configure on Cascade Profiler.?
A. Host Baseline Profiles
B. Custom Port Definitions
C. Host Groupings
D. Mitigation Configuration
Answer: C

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NO.7 Configuring the Cascade appliance to use RADIUS for authentication/authorization involves which of
the following tasks (in no particular order): (Select 4)
A. User Name
B. Specify the IP address of the RADIUS server
C. Port number
D. Password
E. Authentication protocol
F. Shared secret of each RADIUS server
Answer: B,C,E,F

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NO.8 To drill down and analyze a file within Cascade Pilot, you should. (Select 2)
A. Select a graphic object in a View chart, and drag a View on the object.
B. Select a graphic object in a View chart, and drag a View on the trace file.
C. Select the View, right-click, and apply it with the filter associated with a graphic object.
D. Right-click in the View chart, and select "Drill-down" to select the View.
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 What are the ways Cascade Profiler can graphically depict response times in the GUI?
A. In Overall Traffic Graphs
B. In Connection Graphs
C. In Dashboard Line Graphs
D. In Overall Traffic Graphs and in Connection Graphs
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following are differences between the Cascade Sensor and the Cascade Shark appliances?
(Select 2)
A. Cascade Shark appliance can monitor 10GE interface traffic but Cascade Sensor cannot.
B. Cascade Sensor can provide flow data to Cascade Profiler but Cascade Shark appliance cannot.
C. Cascade Shark appliance has much higher write-to-disk rates than the Cascade Sensor and is the
appropriate appliance when packet capture is the primary requirement.
D. Cascade Sensor can recognize the application type by its DPI signature database but Cascade Shark
appliance cannot.
Answer: C,D

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NO.11 In a Cascade deployment with Sensor and Profiler, what information does the Application Performance
Policy report show? (Select 4)
A. Number of connections per second
B. Average Response time
C. TCP resets
D. CPU and memory utilization of server
E. TCP retransmission
F. Number of jumbo frames
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.12 In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what do the QoS values mean?
A. They are based upon the 6-bit Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP).
B. They are based upon Host Group definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
C. They are based upon Application definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
D. They are based upon Port definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
Answer: A

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NO.13 In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what format can be used for a Dashboard Content Block? (Select 3)
A. Connection Graph
B. Detailed Flow List
C. Table
D. Pie Chart
E. Line Graph
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.14 Within Cascade Pilot, how are views used to analyze a trace file? (Select 2)
A. Drag the trace file on the View to apply the View.
B. Right-click the View item and select "Apply with Filter".
C. Drag a View on the trace file to apply the selected View.
D. Select the View and the trace file, and double-click the trace file.
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 On Cascade Profiler, which of the following are configurable from the Configuration> User Interface
Preferences interface? (Select 4)
A. Default Host Group Type to use on the User Interface and Reports
B. Whether hosts will be displayed by IP address or DNS/DHCP hostname
C. User ¯s Timezone to use for the User Interface and Reports
D. Option to control whether bandwidth is reported in Bits or Bytes
E. Host group definitions for mapping IP subnets into Custom host groups
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.16 Some common protocols, which may be observed on a network with visibility tools, include:
A. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/445
B. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/443
C. HTTP over TCP/443 and HTTPS over TCP/80
D. HTTP over TCP/445 and HTTPS over TCP/80
E. HTTP over TCP/88 and HTTP over TCP/444
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is the minimum number of physical boxes involved in a Cascade Enterprise Profiler?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: C

Riverbed   201-01   201-01   201-01

NO.18 How does the Cascade Profiler determine the optimization levels achieved for WAN Optimization
reports?
A. Compare the amount of traffic crossing a LAN interface to the corresponding traffic crossing an
optimized WAN interface.
B. Compare updates received via SNMP from Steelhead optimization devices with router devices.
C. The Cascade Profiler cannot determine optimization levels.
D. Through manual entry of levels achieved.
E. Compare updates received via flows from Steelhead optimization devices with router devices.
Answer: A

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NO.19 What are the types of content blocks available to view Events
on the Cascade Profiler dashboard?
(Select 2)
A. Security Events
B. Performance and Availability Events
C. Current Events
D. Unacknowledged Events
E. Public Events
F. Private Events
G. Per User Events
H. Per IP Address Events
Answer: C,D

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NO.20 What are some reports Cascade Profiler provides to benefit WAN management?
A. WAN Optimization Benefits reports, Breakdown of business versus non-business application reports,
QOS reports by interface and/or application.
B. WAN Optimization of all TCP protocols with more specific optimization of over 50 TCP Applications.
C. WAN reporting of TCP Protocols.
D. QOS shaping, User-based policies that will block not compliant traffic, WAN optimization reporting.
Answer: A

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