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NO.1 Sunil is designing a portal cluster for production. He is using a 32-bit version of IBM
WebSphere Portal server and has several multiprocessor servers with 16 GB of memory.
What type of cluster configuration should he use?
A. A vertical cluster, because it ensures minimal latency between cluster members.
B. A horizontal cluster, because it provides fault tolerance.
C. A combination of vertical and horizontal clusters to gain the benefits of both configuration types.
D. A multi-production cluster because it meets both high-availability and high-performance criteria.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following direct migration paths to IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 are supported.?
A. WebSphere Portal 5.1.0.x and 6.1.0.x.
B. WebSphere Portal 6.0.0.x and 7.0.0.x.
C. WebSphere Portal 6.1.5.x and 7.0.0.x.
D. All of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The business units of Mary's company have needs for their own portals. However, the
demand on server resources is not great enough to require parallel installations. In response, Mary's
company selected virtual portals.
Which of the following options are available across each of the virtual portals by default?
A. Portal search
B. Document management
C. Portal property file definitions
D. Anonymous pages per virtual portal
Answer: D

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NO.4 What parameters need to be modified in the Installation Manager response file to change
the default port numbers during a silent installation?
A. -W portBlockInput.startingPortToScan=port number -W portBlockInput.endingPortToScan=port
number
-W portBlockInput.portBlockSize=blocksize
B. <data key='user.wp.admin.port,com.ibm.websphere.PORTAL.SERVER.v80'
value='<port>'/>and<data
key='user.wp.portal.port,com.ibm.websphere.PORTAL.SERVER.v80' value='<port>'/>
C. <port.admin='<port>'/>and<port.wps='<port>'/>
D. IBM WebSphere Portal always scans for active ports at 10000 and ends at 65000 during
installation.
This behavior cannot be affected usingcommand parameters.
Answer: B

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NO.5 IBM has confirmed that a single IBM WebSphere Portal installation can support __________
Virtual Portals.
A. 65
B. 115
C. 300
D. 215
E. All of the above.
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which of the following tools is not used by an IBM WebSphere Portal administrator for staging
data to a production environment?
A. Managed Pages
B. Syndication
C. Release Builder
D. XMLAccess
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which option best describes the workflows that can be achieved using the IBM WebSphere
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A. Enabling security.
B. Enabling security, transferring the portal database, and connecting to an existing database.
C. Enabling security, and transferring the portal database.
D. Enabling security, transferring the portal database, connecting to an existing database, and
enabling
IBM Lotus Domino integration(collaborative features, directory integration, and so on).
Answer: B

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NO.8 Bob is building a site that is displayed using either IBM Web Content Manager or a web server.
It is not using any IBM WebSphere Portal features such as portlets. The content is static and is only
updated periodically.
What delivery mechanism is best suited for this scenario?
A. Servlet delivery
B. Pre-rendered delivery
C. Local, web-content, viewer delivery
D. Remote, web-content, viewer delivery
Answer: B

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NO.1 Why is it important that error pages are correctly defined?
A. IBM Security AppScan Standard Edition cannot handle redirection without correctly defined error
pages.
B. IBM Security AppScan Standard Edition cannot maintain session state without correctly defined
error pages.
C. If IBM Security AppScan Standard Edition understands the application's request is an error, it can
more properly pass or fail certain tests.
D. If IBM Security AppScan Standard Edition understands the application's response is an error, it can
more properly pass or fail certain tests.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which three statements are true about configuring an IBM Security AppScan Standard Edition
test policy?
A. A test policy can be searched.
B. A test policy cannot be changed.
C. A test policy contains error page definitions.
D. A test policy can be grouped by its OWASP classification.
E. A test policy contains advisory information about each test.
F. A test policy can be configured to include or exclude test variants.
Answer: A,C,F

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Reference:http://pic.dhe.ibm.com/infocenter/apsshelp/v8r6m0/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.ib
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NO.3 Where would you configure AppScan to identify itself, and the exact stage of the scan, in each
HTTP request?
A. Custom Headers identify as AppScan
B. Custom Headers > Include AppScan debug headers in all requests
C. Advanced Configuration View > Include AppScan debug headers in all requests
D. Advanced Custom Parameters > Include AppScan debug headers in all requests
Answer: C

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NO.4 In the Automatic Form Fill window, if the URL field is blank for a particular row, which value will
be passed for that row's parameter?
A. Blank
B. That row's parameter value
C. The parameter will be skipped.
D. The value of the "Fill unknown fields with" box
Answer: B

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NO.5 What information is available when a vulnerability is discovered via traditional dynamic testing
(i.e. not via Glassbox testing or JavaScript analysis)?
A. Fix recommendation
B. Line number of the affected code
C. Automatic code correction button
D. Directory and file location of the affected code
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three finding types can the IBM Security AppScan Standard Edition malware module
identify?
A. Link Injections
B. Broken external links
C. Unwanted internal links
D. Malicious external links
E. Unwanted external links
F. Unclassified external links
Answer: D,E,F

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NO.7 Where can you configure Multi-Step Operations?
A. Explore > Manual Explore
B. Tools > Options > Multi-Step Operations
C. Job Configuration > Multi-Step Operations
D. Scan Configuration > Multi Step Operations
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which situation presents a valid reason for reducing the severity ofvulnerability?
A. A Medium severity Link Injection vulnerability should be reduced when it only occurs on a login
page.
B. A High severity SQL Injection vulnerability should be reduced when the affected database is read
only.
C. A High severity Cross-Site Scripting vulnerability is confirmed to be a Reflected XSS and would
require user authentication to be exploited.
D. A High severity Unencrypted Login Request vulnerability should be reduced when the application
is using a database that is encrypted with Triple DES (Data Encryption Standard) and a 168 bit key.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which statement is true?
A. Worklight Console is where services connectivity may be configured for the mobile application.
B. Worklight Console allows for the creation of a user experience based on open source libraries and
HTML5.
C. Worklight Console is not connected to Worklight Server or ID
D. Worklight Console allows for push notifications, version control and direct updates.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which customer scenario represents the most ideal prospect for IBM Worklight Platform?
A. The customer that wants a pure native application and is looking to their digital design agency,
that built their ecommerce website, to now build their mobile application.
B. The customer that is looking for a solution to help build mobile hybrid applications in house by
their web development team.
C. The customer that believes they do not need a presence on commercial App Stores and just
wants a server side mobile web experience for their customers.
D. The customer that is looking for a simple single app for a single device for its internal employees.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A developer creating mobile applications combining native and standard web technologies will
use:
A. IBM Worklight Studio (The product's IDE).
B. Their own Mac machine using Xcode
C. Hybrid applications using Objective-C
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.1 A team wants to make some attributes mandatory when work items are created. In order to
meet this objective, want can be done in Rational Team Concert ?
A. Work item attributes are all optional by design and there is no way to define mandatory
attributes for work items
B. Add a precondition to the Work Item Save operation to define which fields in a work item must
be filled in before it can be saved
C. Work item attributes are all mandatory by design. Users who create a work item are required to
fill in all the attributes.
D. Add a follow-up action to the Work Item Save operation to define the error message to display
when mandatory attributes are not filled in
Answer: B

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NO.2 When does the RTC SCM detect conflicts? (Choose two.)
A. When incoming and outgoing change sets are coming from the same user
B. When incoming and outgoing change sets include changes to the same file
C. When incoming and outgoing change sets include changes to the same folders
D. When incoming and outgoing change sets are coming from two different users
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 What is the velocity for a development team following the Scrum process template?
A. the average number of hours the team can deliver in an iteration
B. the average number of stories the team can deliver in an iteration
C. the average number of story points the team can deliver in an iteration
D. the average number of tasks the team can deliver in an iteration
Answer: C

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NO.4 In an iteration plan, which value is represented by the length of the progress bar
A. The amount of work estimated
B. The amount of work completed
C. The amount of work on schedule
D. The amount of active work
Answer: B

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NO.5 An organization uses the Formal Project Management process template for a project. Some
work items in the Gantt chart view of an iteration plan for the project are shown in red. What does
red indicate?
A. high severity
B. high priority
C. on the critical path
D. unassigned
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. The Deliver operation copies change sets from the repository workspace to the flow target.
B. The Check-In operation copies files modified from the local sandbox to the repository workspace.
C. The Check-Out operation copies files from the repository workspace into the local sandbox.
D. The Accept operation copies change sets from the flow target into the repository workspace and
local sandbox.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 What is the main purpose of the work item discussion section?
A. to add notes and exchange information about the work item
B. to assign the owner of the work item
C. to move the work item through its lifecycle to the resolved state
D. to associate a work item with a release
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are configurable items for the process template?
A. timelines, iterations, roles, and operational behaviors
B. plugins, cheat sheets, and dependencies
C. Java source code, source comments, and event handlers
D. categories, releases, and access control
Answer: A

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NO.1 A Model has property values that change frequently, and these changes are communicated by an
external vendor. The modeler needs to make these changes as required. What is the MOST efficient way
of updating the Model with these frequent changes?
A. Make the changes in the database table.
B. Make the changes using the Visual Modeler.
C. Export the current Model and make changes in the Model XML. Import the changed Model.
D. Create a common Worksheet and maintain it externally in a Comma Separated Value (CSV) file.
Upload it with the new property values.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A Model is developed per the following image:
To ensure consistency and control of priorities, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. "Property, D" will always be equal to 5.
B. The formula cannot be attached to property as depicted in the image.
C. To ensure that the value of "Property, D" is 7 after Model execution, change the priority of formula firing
so that the formula for deriving "Property, C" is fired before the formula for "Property, D".
D. To ensure that the value of "Property, C" is calculated before the value of "Property, D", replace the
formula with two rules. Rule1 calculates "Property, C" and Rule2 calculates "Property, D". Set the priority
for Rule1 is set to 40, and the priority of Rule2 to 50.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A company wants to give its customers a 10% volume discount for its Professional Services if the order
totals 100 or more hours. The $250 hourly (undiscounted) base rate for Professional Services is retained
in an Option Item under an Option Class called base rates in the model and is never displayed in the UI.
Rules will be used to set the UI: PRICE for the Professional Services Option Item displayed in the UI
based on the quantity of hours ordered and the UI: PRICE of the hidden base rate Option Item.
Review the following images which show what is presented to the user in the UI with and without a
discount.
When creating these assignment rules, which function needs to be used to retrieve the hourly base rate
for Professional Services?
A. sum
B. value
C. lookup
D. propval
Answer: D

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NO.4 When naming properties, a modeler avoids using names that start with an "_" (underscore). The
modeler is correct to do this, because names that start with an "_" (underscore) are which type of
properties?
A. UI Properties
B. UEV Properties
C. System Properties
D. Rule Trace Properties
Answer: C

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NO.5 A modeler has to create a rule with many fragments. In which order should the fragments be set up for
better performance?
A. The nested fragments should come first.
B. The least probable fragment should come first.
C. The sequence of the fragments do not make any difference.
D. The fragments that use custom function handlers should come first.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A major bike manufacturer sells customizable bikes online, and includes assembly and shipping. For a
bike to be completed, the user must select a frame, tires and gear systems. There are several choices
available for the user in each category, but there are some compatibility issues between certain types of
frames and the third-party gear systems that the manufacturer uses. For example, there are three sizes
the bike frames: 19" 20" and 22". There are three models of gear systems that the manufacturer offers:
6.speed, 18-speed and 24-speed. While 6-speed and 18speed fits all the frame sizes, 24-speed is a
premium exclusive model and fits only the 22". The requirement calls for compatibility to be pointed out to
the user. What is the correct way to model this product?
A. Use a rule to automatically fix compatibility issues.
B. Use a Constraint Table to manage the allowable configurations.
C. Use a list to list down the different options available for each frame.
D. Define different properties for gear system 24-speed to distinguish it from 6-speed and 18speed.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A modeler wants to give a discount on the price of cars, but only if the following conditions are
satisfied:
The modeler creates a rule for this and it is set to trigger on success. How will this rule condition be
defined in the Visual Modeler?
B
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
Answer: C

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NO.8 A car manufacturer wants to display a list of available cars based on what the customer chooses for the:
What should be the rule fragment/condition written for this?
A. value(AvailableCars) not in list(CarType) [Fragment is false]
B. value(AvailableCars) not in propval(CarType) [Fragment is false]
C. propval(AvailableCars) not in list(CarType) [Fragment is false]
D. propval(AvailableCars) not in parent(CarType) [Fragment is false]
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which two pieces of information must be collected in order to select the appropriate
monitoring agent? (Choose two.)
A. The applications to be monitored.
B. The firewalls in the company's network.
C. The size of the data warehouse database.
D. The operating system of the servers to be monitored.
E. The operating system of the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server.
Answer: A,D

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5. According to the IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Installation and Setup Guide, what is the
maximum number of agents that a remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (RTEMS) can handle?
A. 500
B. 1500
C. 2500
D. 3500
Answer: B

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6. When planning to deploy a KDE Gateway, which two IBM Tivoli Monitoring components must
be configured to add the KDE Gateway configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Warehouse Proxy Agent
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent
D. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
E. Summarization and Pruning Agent
Answer: C,D

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7. Which protocol can an agent use to send messages to an event management system when the
agent is running in Autonomous mode?
A. XML
B. SSH
C. SOAP
D. SNMP
Answer: D

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8. An agentless monitoring server is installed with these active agentless monitor instance types
started: 2AIX, 2 Linux, 2 Solaris, 2 Windows.What is the maximum number of systems that can be
monitored?
A. 8
B. 80
C. 800
D. 8000
Answer: C

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9. Which three database products are supported for the Tivoli Data Warehouse database?
(Choose three.)
A. Derby
B. Oracle
C. Sybase
D. MS SQL
E. IBM DB2
F. IBM Informix
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 A customer wants fully autonomous monitoring for their operating systems which are based in
a place with these restrictions:
The traditional operating system agents (the knt, klz, and kux agents that monitor the Windows,
Linux, and UNIX operating environments) cannot be used directly.
Which statement is true in order to meet the customer's requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) will not be the right solution because of the relatively large agent
footprint.
B. ITM will not be the right solution because Java is required for all ITM agents to operate.
C. The traditional ITM operating system agents must be configured for Autonomous Mode.
D. The customer will have to deploy the System Monitor Agents which provide autonomous-only
monitoring for their operating systems.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are two considerations before installing any IBM Tivoli Monitoring component in an
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A. Open only one port on the firewall(s).
B. Opening as few ports on the firewall(s) as possible.
C. The existing firewall(s) must be moved and/or uninstalled.
D. Location of components to be installed relation to existing firewall(s).
E. If a single or multiple firewall exists then the KDE gateway must be used.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 What information must be collected in order to plan a Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
in an IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 (ITM) implementation?
A. The location of the servers to be monitored.
B. Which applications are running on the monitored servers?
C. The number of servers and applications monitored by ITM.
D. How many users are logged into each of the monitored servers?
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following applications do NOT benefit from Optimization.?
A. Portfolio management
B. Scheduling advertisements on TV channels
C. Credit Application processing
D. Employee management
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement does NOT apply to Optimization?
A. It is the same as business simulation.
B. It helps companies make choices to reach a target while observing limits and data.
C. It improves resource utilization (e.g., Capital, equipments, facilities).
D. It helps companies provide better customer service.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which type of problem is CPLEX NOT well equipped to solve?
A. Nonlinear Program
B. Linear Program
C. Quadratic Program
D. Integer Program
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following features are NOT provided by ODME?
A. Data Visualization and editing.
B. Scenario Management and Collaborative planning.
C. Out of the box Client/Server Architecture.
D. Web-enabled client/Thin Client.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT a key element in qualifying an IBM ILOG Optimization
sales opportunity?
A. Can the System be Optimized?
B. Problem can be formulated in nested if , then , else statements.
C. Can you understand the relationships between choices and outcomes?
D. Is data readily available?
Answer: A

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