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Exam Code: E20-814

Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators)

Exam Code: E20-007

Exam Name: EMC (Data Science and Big Data Analytics)

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Exam Name: EMC (VNX Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects)

Exam Code: E10-001

Exam Name: EMC (Information Storage and Management Exam Version 2)

Exam Code: E20-326

Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Design Exam)

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NO.1 A pair of VNX storage arrays is replicating between two data centers over an iSCSI connection. The
SQL Admin has noticed that a small OLTP database with a write size of 4k periodically experiences
increased disk response times. The Storage Admin reports that during the same period, replication
sessions are taking longer to complete. The Network Admin reports degraded performance between the
sites during the same period.
Why is the SQL application seeing increased disk response times from the local array?
A. Increased latency causes the MirrorView/A update cycles to take longer, increasing COFW activity.
B. The 64 KB chunk size for MirrorView/A does not match the small transaction size of the database,
increasing the bandwidth required between the arrays.
C. The MirrorView/A update cycle time is too short. It should be increased to improve write folding.
D. The MirrorView/A buffer size should be adjusted to match the smaller write I/O size.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer is in the design phase of their SQL server implementation. They request your guidance
concerning the number of disk drives needed to properly configure the database for performance. The
current utilization of the database is shown below:
-80% reads and 20% writes
-10K SAS disks
-RAID 5
-1150 IOPS
What is the minimum number of disk spindles required to service the random I/O requests during usage of
the SQL Server database?
A. 12
B. 14
C. 18
D. 20
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer has a VNX system to provide storage for a VMware Cluster with five ESX hosts. Each ESX
host has one dual-port FC HBA connected to two FC switches. They are using VMware native failover
functionality for high availability and load-balancing.
The customer requires higher availability for the ESX host connectivity to the storage system.
What would you recommend to the customer?
A. Use dual HBAs with dual ports on each ESX host.
B. Use a host-based load balancing solution.
C. Use high quality stackable FC switches.
D. Current configuration ensures the best availability.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A company has added a large number of users to a VMware VDI deployment. The users are
complaining that the system (VNX-Block) is slow, especially when they start their shift. You have been
tasked to provide an economical solution.
Which technology would you use to improve performance?
A. FAST Cache
B. FAST VP
C. FAST
D. Fast VPN
Answer: A

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NO.5 As a result of suffering a catastrophic failure, your customer has requested a DR solution. The solution
must introduce a higher level of availability for their Exchange 2010 system. You have recommended a
strategy that involves Replication Manager with native DAG.
In what state(s) of the database would the replication occur?
A. Either active or passive
B. Active only
C. Passive only
D. Neither active nor passive
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer is in the design phase of their SQL server implementation. They request your guidance
concerning the number of disk drives needed to properly configure the database for performance. The
current utilization of the database is shown below:S
-85% reads and 15% writes
-10K SAS disks
-RAID 1/0
-1150 IOPS
What is the minimum number of disk spindles required to service the random I/O requests during usage of
the SQL Server database?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which action would be most effective in reducing the performance impact of a Snapshot on a Source
LUN?
A. Using faster disks for the Source LUN
B. Using faster disks for the Reserved LUN Pool
C. Increasing the Snapshot chunk size
D. Increasing the Snapshot write-aside size
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer would like to use five Ethernet ports on a VNX to increase the port and switch availability.
Two non-stackable Ethernet switches are available for the VNX and both support Full Duplex
communications.
How should the customer configure the VNX for the network?
A. Fail Safe Networking and Link Aggregation
B. Link Aggregation only
C. EtherChannel and Fail Safe Networking
D. EtherChannel only
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer has designed an environment using block based LUNs presented to individual hosts. They
have configured a pool to start using both thick and thin LUNs. One of the standalone servers is an
archive server running on Windows. They want to maximize capacity on the standalone server since the
data is no longer accessed. They have no more drives to increase LUN capacity.
How can the customer increase available capacity to the archive server?
A. Compress the data on the block based LUN
B. Add capacity to the existing LUN
C. Delete old files
D. Back up the files, reconfigure the LUN, and restore the data
Answer: A

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NO.10 Your customer is designing a Proof of Concept with SQL Server attached to a VNX. The storage
design includes seven LUNs on a RAID Group. The system is generally very heavily loaded, with a
particularly high load on the cache. This is a very carefully controlled environment and your customer has
asked for assistance in planning the layout of the LUN location on the physical spindles.
Where in the RAID Group would you recommend placing the two heavily used LUNs for a short-stroked
architecture?
A. Adjacent to each other at the beginning
B. One at beginning and one at the end
C. Adjacent to each other in the middle
D. Evenly placed, as non-adjacent as possible
Answer: A

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NO.11 A customer would like to configure their VNX for File for the highest possible level of client availability.
There are five Ethernet ports on a single DataMover and a single Ethernet switch available for client
communications.
What availability features would you recommend to the customer?
A. Link Aggregation Control Protocol only
B. EtherChannel port aggregation and Fail Safe Networking
C. Fail Safe Networking and Link Aggregation Control Protocol
D. EtherChannel port aggregation only
Answer: A

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NO.12 A VNX storage system is being configured to provide storage for an Exchange 2010 implementation for
2,000 users. Performance and reliability are more important than cost for the customer.
What RAID configuration should be used?
A. A RAID 1/0 Group, spread across two DAEs on two separate storage system busses
B. Two RAID 5 Groups in a striped metaLUN across two DAEs, one from each back end bus
C. A RAID 1/0 Group on a single DAE
D. A RAID 6 Group which can accommodate two simultaneous drive failures
Answer: A

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NO.13 A customer has created a thin LUN, enabled compression on a LUN Pool, and installed their Exchange
environment. The Exchange application is showing poor performance.
Which workload characteristic of Exchange would produce poor access times on a compressed LUN?
A. Small random writes
B. Small random reads
C. Sequential reads
D. Uncompressed or host based data
Answer: A

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NO.14 A customer is checking a NAR file in Unisphere Analyzer. They see that a RAID Group with only a single
LUN is shown with consistently large Disk - Average Seek Distances.
What could this indicate?
A. Randomness of the I/O
B. Write utilization
C. LUN misalignment
D. Applicationburstiness
Answer: A

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NO.15 A customer is about to implement your VNX for File design for a file-sharing environment. The design
specifies both NFS and Windows clients that access file systems in a multi-threaded manner. All file
systems will be created using the Automatic Volume Manager. The customer is most concerned with disk
efficiency, and wants to use all storage in each pool entry before creating another.
Which value would you change to meet this requirement?
A. is_greedy
B. slice
C. is_dynamic
D. stripesize
Answer: A

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NO.16 A client has asked for assistance with designing his Exchange environment. The environment today is
fully virtualized and Exchange will be as well. The client is concerned about local recovery and has
decided to make VMware snapshots of their VMFS File system housing Exchange. The VMware servers
are all attached through fiber to a VNX.
What volume type is required to meet the customer's protection needs?
A. Virtual Mode RDMs
B. Physical Mode RDMs
C. VMFS
D. Dedicated RAID Group LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.17 A SQL Data Warehouse database is replicating between two VNX storage systems with Incremental
San Copy. The production database is on 15, 15k rpm SAS drives and the Reserved LUN Pool uses five
NL-SAS drives. The database is continuously updated locally and replicated once a day to maximize the
benefits of write folding. Replication takes place from 6 PM until 10 PM. At 6 PM the storage administrator
notices an increase in response time of the application, which steadily improves until 10 PM.
What should be done to improve performance during replication without affecting recovery data
granularity?
A. Put the Reserve LUN Pool on a similar disk and RAID type as the source volume.
B. Create a clone of the source volume and replicate the clone.
C. Expand the number of drives in the source volume to accommodate the increased I/O from the
replication session.
D. Adjust the San Copy throttle to minimize the impact to the production application.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Your customer has a new VNX solution configured with Flash, SAS, and NL-SAS drives. The customer
requires their OLTP, VDI, Software Development, and Regulatory Compliance workloads to be distributed
between the different drive types. Due to limited drive quantities only one workload type can be configured
using Flash drives.
According to best practices which configuration best assigns the workloads.?
A. VDI on Flash drives; OLTP on SAS; Software Development on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on
NL-SAS
B. OLTP on Flash drives; VDI on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on SAS; Software Development on
NL-SAS
C. OLTP on Flash drives; VDI on SAS; Software Development on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on
NL-SAS
D. VDI on Flash drives; OLTP on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on SAS; Software Development on
NL-SAS
Answer: A

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NO.19 You are migrating a backup application that runs on physical servers to a VDC. The VDC storage is
currently a VNX configured with NL-SAS drives only. Your customer is concerned about the cost to
achieve reasonable performance. You are designing the VMs that will support the application.
Based on cost, which would be the first solution you would recommend?
A. VMware Paravirtual SCSI virtual adapter
B. Virtual adapter is BusLogic Parallel
C. FAST VP Pool (Flash and SAS drives)
D. SAS RAID Group
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are working with a customer to design a VNX for Block solution for their SQL database. They
currently have a CX4-480. In the past they have co-located their database and log files. In the new VNX
design, the database will be placed in a FAST VP enabled pool. The transaction logs will be placed on a
traditional RAID Group. Your customer needs help determining the number of spindles they need to
satisfy the needs of their transaction logs.
You know the following: -Transactionperiod:8 hours (business day) -Throughput during transaction
period:240 GB
How many RAID 1/0 15K spindles will the transaction log volume require?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 10
D. 16
Answer: D

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Exam Name: CWNP (Certified Wireless Security Professional (CWSP))

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NO.1 Which of the following authentication processes are specified by the IEEE 802.11 standards? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Open System authentication
B. RADIUS
C. Shared Key authentication
D. EAP
Answer: AC

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NO.2 Which of the following protocols is used to provide on-demand authentication within an ongoing data
transmission?
A. LEAP
B. EAP
C. PPTP
D. CHAP
Answer: D

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NO.3 Victor wants to use Wireless Zero Configuration (WZC) to establish a wireless network connection
using his computer running on Windows XP
operating system. Which of the following are the most likely threats to his computer? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Information of probing for networks can be viewed using a wireless analyzer and may be used to gain
access.
B. Attacker by creating a fake wireless network with high power antenna cause Victor's computer to
associate with his network to gain access.
C. Attacker can use the Ping Flood DoS attack if WZC is used.
D. It will not allow the configuration of encryption and MAC filtering. Sending information is not secure on
wireless network.
Answer: AB

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NO.4 John, a malicious hacker, forces a router to stop forwarding packets by flooding it with many open
connections simultaneously so that all hosts
behind it are effectively disabled. Which of the following attacks is John performing?
A. Rainbow attack
B. DoS attack
C. Replay attack
D. ARP spoofing
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following wireless network security solutions refers to an authentication process in which a
user can connect wireless access points to a centralized server to ensure that all hosts are properly
authenticated?
A. Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)
B. IEEE 802.1x
C. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following methods can be used to detect a rogue access point in order to enhance the
security of the network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Install WIPS
B. Hide the SSID of all AP
C. Check in the managed AP list
D. Use of wireless sniffing tools
Answer: ADC

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NO.7 Which of the following will you recommend for providing security?
A. HTTP
B. VPN
C. SSL
D. S/MIME
Answer: C

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NO.8 You work as a System Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a wireless LAN network.
You want to implement a tool in the company's network, which monitors the radio spectrum used by the
wireless LAN network, and immediately alerts you whenever a rogue access point is detected in the
network. Which of the following tools will you use?
A. Firewall
B. WIPS
C. MFP
D. NAT
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following is a part of computer network that is used to prevent unauthorized Internet users
from accessing private networks
connected to the Internet?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Wired Equivalent Privacy
C. Intrusion detection system
D. Firewall
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following works as a protocol for providing secure communications between wireless
clients and wireless access points?
A. Virtual Private Network
B. Firewall
C. Packet filtering
D. Robust Secure Network
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following are the important components of the IEEE 802.1X architecture? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Authenticator server
B. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)
C. Supplicant
D. Authenticator
Answer: CAD

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NO.12 Which of the following types of attacks cannot be prevented by a firewall? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Shoulder surfing attack
B. Ping flood attack
C. URL obfuscation attack
D. Phishing attack
Answer: CDA

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NO.13 Which of the following methods are capable of operating in wireless networks? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. EAP-TLS
B. LEAP
C. PEAP
D. EAP-TTLS
Answer: BAD

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NO.14 You have been hired to perform a penetration test on a client's network. You want to see if remote
connections are susceptible to eavesdropping or perhaps session hijacking.
Which network tool would be most helpful to you?
A. Vulnerability analyzer
B. Port scanner
C. Performance analyzer.
D. Protocol analyzer
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following protocols uses public-key cryptography to authenticate the remote computer?
A. SSL
B. Telnet
C. SCP
D. SSH
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following protocols uses a program layer located between the Internet's Hypertext Transfer
Protocol (HTTP) and Transport Control Protocol (TCP) layers?
A. TFTP
B. HTTPS
C. SCP
D. SSL
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following is a type of security management for computers and networks in order to
identify security breaches?
A. EAP
B. IPS
C. IDS
D. ASA
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following tools is John using to crack the wireless encryption keys?
A. Kismet
B. AirSnort
C. Cain
D. PsPasswd
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following tools is John using to crack the wireless encryption keys?
A. Kismet
B. AirSnort
C. Cain
D. PsPasswd
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following is a common Windows authentication protocol used by the IEEE 802.1X security
standard.?
A. TACACS
B. LDAP
C. RADIUS
D. SSL/TLS
Answer: C

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NO.1 Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic. Host B sends a frame to Host C. What
will the switch do with the frame?
A.drop the frame
B.send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C.return the frame to Host B
D.send an ARP request for Host C
E.send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B
F.record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C
Answer:B

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator replaced the 10/100 Mb NIC in a desktop PC with a 1 Gb NIC
and now the PC will not connect to the network. The administrator began troubleshooting on the switch.
Using the switch output shown, what is the cause of the problem?
A.Speed is set to 100Mb/s.
B.Input flow control is off.
C.Encapsulation is set to ARPA.D.The port is administratively down.
E.The counters have never been cleared.
Answer:A

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NO.3 Refer to the topology and MAC address table shown in the exhibit. Host A sends a data frame to host D.
What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
A.The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to
host D.B.The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A.C.The switch will
flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.
D.The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the
frame to host D.
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A.There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B.A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C.Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D.In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media
before transmitting.
E.The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Answer:ABE

Cisco   640-822 exam   640-822 original questions

NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a
leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the
minimum requirements for this installation?
A.a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B.a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C.a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D.a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E.a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A.application
B.session
C.transport
D.network
E.data link
F.physical
Answer:D

Cisco certification   640-822 exam prep   640-822

NO.7 An elementary school has a computer in every classroom. One entire wing of the school connects to a
centrally located hub. The teachers have reported a slowdown in the past few weeks to the network
administrator. The network administrator has analyzed the network and documented a steep increase in
utilization as the teachers use a new network-based classroom management application. Which solution
will improve the performance the most?
A.Replace the hub with a switch.
B.Install a repeater in the affected wing.
C.Reboot the router that connects to the hub.
D.Install a router and install another hub in the affected wing.
E.Ensure all devices in the affected wing have a default gateway.
Answer:A

Cisco   640-822   640-822   640-822   640-822

NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator replaced the NIC in a desktop PC with a new NIC. The NIC in the PC configuration is set
to "100 Mb Half." Now the PC has intermittent connectivity and loss of communication so the
administrator began troubleshooting on the switch. Using the switch output shown, what is the cause of
the problem?
A.Input flow control is off.
B.Encapsulation is set to ARPA.
C.The switch is set to full-duplex.
D.The port is administratively down.
E.Fast Ethernet is incompatible with a megabit NIC.
F.The counters were not cleared after the hardware was replaced.
Answer:C

Cisco test   640-822   640-822 braindump   640-822 demo

NO.9 Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A.In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B.In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C.The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the
CSMA/CD access method.
D.After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E.After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired,
all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F.After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each
other prior to transmitting data.
Answer:BE

Cisco   640-822   640-822 demo   640-822

NO.10 Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A.A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B.A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C.A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D.A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E.A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F.A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer:ADE

Cisco   640-822 study guide   640-822

NO.11 What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28?
A.172.19.20.0
B.172.19.20.15
C.172.19.20.16
D.172.19.20.20
E.172.19.20.32
Answer:C

Cisco certification   640-822 demo   640-822 study guide   640-822

NO.12 An Ethernet cable is attached to a PC NIC and then attached to a switch port. The PC power is turned
on and the switch port link LED turns green. The link light indicates what two conditions? (Choose two.)
A.Layer 2 communication has been established between the PC and switch.
B.The PC has received a DHCP address.
C.Traffic is being sent from the switch to the PC.D.If flashing, the green LED indicates port speed of 100
Mb/s.
E.The Layer 1 media is functioning between the PC and switch.
F.The switch port is functioning as a half-duplex connection.
Answer:AE

Cisco study guide   640-822   640-822 pdf   640-822 exam simulations

NO.13 What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed to create subnets if a Class B network
address is being used?
A.2
B.6
C.8
D.14
E.16
Answer:D

Cisco demo   640-822 exam prep   640-822   640-822 certification

NO.14 A host computer has the IP address 192.168.43.139 and netmask 255.255.255.240. On which logical
IP network does this host reside?
A.192.168.0.0/26
B.192.168.0.0/28
C.192.168.43.0/28
D.192.168.43.64/28
E.192.168.43.112/28
F.192.168.43.128/28
Answer:F

Cisco test   640-822   640-822 answers real questions

NO.15 Refer to the exhibit.
All devices attached to the network are shown. How many collision domains are present in this network?
A.2
B.3
C.6
D.9
E.15
Answer:E

Cisco   640-822 study guide   640-822 demo   640-822 pdf   640-822 study guide

NO.16 Refer to the exhibit.
Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in
the ARP request?
A.192.168.0.1
B.172.16.0.50
C.00-17-94-61-18-b0
D.00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E.ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F.255.255.255.255
Answer:E

Cisco braindump   640-822   640-822 test answers

NO.17 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote
management by pasting into the console the configuration commands that are shown in the exhibit.
However, a Telnet session cannot be successfully established from a remote host. What should be done
to fix this problem?
A.Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1.
B.Change the first line to interface vlan 0/1.
C.Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.
D.Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1.
E.Change the sixth line to line con 0.
Answer:C

Cisco original questions   640-822 exam simulations   640-822

NO.18 Refer to the exhibit. The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC
address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.
What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)
A.The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.
B.The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
C.The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
D.The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
E.The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.
Answer:AD

Cisco   640-822 exam   640-822 braindump   640-822 test answers

NO.19 Refer to the exhibits labeled A through E. All devices are to be connected over Ethernet. Which three
device-to-device configurations are likely to require the use of a crossover connection? (Choose three.)
A.exhibit A
B.exhibit B
C.exhibit C
D.exhibit D
E.exhibit E
Answer:ADE

Cisco exam prep   640-822   640-822   640-822   640-822

NO.20 From which IP address class can 15 bits be borrowed to create subnets?
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
Answer:A

Cisco   640-822 exam dumps   640-822   640-822 pdf   640-822 exam dumps

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Exam Code: 650-032

Exam Name: Cisco (Mobile Internet Technology for Account Managers)

Exam Code: 644-337

Exam Name: Cisco (SP Video Phase III Cable Headend & Hub)

Exam Code: 644-334

Exam Name: Cisco (SP Video Phase III Cable Access Networks)

Exam Code: 642-979

Exam Name: Cisco (Cisco Data Center Unified Computing Support Specialist Qualifier Exam)

Exam Code: 642-978

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Exam Code: 642-874

Exam Name: Cisco (Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures)

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NO.1 You have been asked to configure a port an your Cisco MDS switch so that a host can join your fabric.
Which of these port types should the port be st to?
A. N_Port
B. NL_Port
C. F_Port
D. E_Port
E. TE_Port
F. SD_Port
Answer: C

Cisco dumps   642-979   642-979   642-979

NO.2 Which two Cisco MDS fes\atures allow fabric-wide-consistent and VSAN-independent configurations of
the zoning information? (Choose two)
A. CFS
B. sWWN
C. Fibre Channel alias
D. Device alias
E. Interface ID
F. port-based zoning
Answer: A,D

Cisco certification training   642-979   642-979 exam   642-979

NO.3 The customer is concerned e\with the current FCIP deployment because the FCIP tunnels are
traversing the public IP infrastructure. To mitigate this issue the customer has decided to deploy Ipsec on
the Cisco MDS 9Wi Switches that are used FCIP connectivity what additional license must be installed on
the CISCO MDS 9222 switches?
A. enterprise license
B. Security license
C. No additional license is required
D. SAN extension license
Answer: A

Cisco test   642-979   642-979 certification training   642-979 exam

NO.4 For purposes of granting restricted access to statically configure iSCSI virtual targets, when three of
these can be used to identify iSCSI.? (Choose three)
A. IsCSI node name
B. hostname
C. IPv4 address and subnet
D. MAC address
E. IPv6 address
Answer: A,C,E

Cisco practice test   642-979 practice test   642-979   642-979 answers real questions   642-979

NO.5 Which interface should be used to configure VLANIDs and ACLs in an FcoF adapter of the Cisco Nexus
5000 switch?
A. SV1
B. virtual Fibre Channel
C. virtual Ethernet
D. virtual interface group
Answer: C

Cisco study guide   642-979   642-979   642-979

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Exam Code: 156-815

Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Managed Security Expert NGX)

Exam Code: 156-315

Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Security Administration NGX II (156-315.1)......)

Exam Code: 156-510

Exam Name: CheckPoint (VPN-1/FireWall-1 Management III)

Exam Code: 156-215

Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Security Administration NGX)

Exam Code: 156-310

Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point CCSE NG)

Exam Code: 156-210

Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point CCSA NG)

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NO.1 When you upgrade VPN-1/FireWall-1, what components are carried over to the new
version? (Choose two)
A. Licenses
B. VPN-1/FireWall-1 database
C. OPSEC database
D. Backward Compatibility
E. Rule Base
Answer: A, B

CheckPoint questions   156-310   156-310   156-310 test questions

NO.2 Diffie-Hellman uses which type of key exchange?
A. Static
B. Dynamic
C. Symmetric
D. Asymmetric
E. Adaptive
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-310   156-310

NO.3 You are importing a URI specification file from the Match tab on the URI Resource Properties screen.
Where is the editable URI specification file stored?
A. Policy Server
B. SmartView Monitor
C. Enforcement Module
D. SmartCenter Server
E. Enterprise Log Module
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-310 braindump   156-310   156-310 study guide

NO.4 Mark is preparing to install VPN-1/FireWall-1 and has created the installation plan below.
1. Perform the following operations below in sequential order.
2. Install the operating system.
3. Configure routing and IP forwarding.
4. Configure name resolution.
5. Patch the operating system.
6. Set $FWDIR and $CPDIR environment variables.
7. Install VPN-1/FireWall-1.
8. Patch VPN-1/FireWall-1,
Which step in Mark's installation plan is NOT necessary?
A. Operating-system patches should not be applied, until after VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed. Applying
operating-system patches before VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed will result in an unsecured system.
B. VPN-1/FireWall-1 configures name resolution automatically. Name resolution should not be part of the
installation plan.
C. There is nothing wrong with Mark's installation plan.
D.
Routing and IP Forwarding should be configured after VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed. Configuring routing
and
IP forwarding before VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed will result in an unstable system.
E. VPN-1/FireWall-1 configures environment variables automatically. Configure environment variables
should
not be part of the installation plan.
Answer: E

CheckPoint dumps   156-310 questions   156-310

NO.5 When upgrading a configuration to NG with Application Intelligence: (Choose the
FALSE answer)
A. Upgrade the SmartConsole.
B. Upgrade each module's version in SmartDashboard manually.
C. Upgrade the VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Modules.
D. Copy $FWDIR/state from one version of VPN-1/FireWall-1 to another version of
VPN-1/FireWall-1.
E. Upgrade the SmartCenter server. The version is set during the upgrade.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-310   156-310

NO.6 Which of the following is TRUE of the relationship between the RemoteAccess VPN
Community and the Security Policy Rule Base?
A. The RemoteAccess VPN Community defines VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections. The Security Policy Rule Base is used to allow access to
protected resources.
B. The RemoteAccess VPN Community is used to allow access to protected resources.
The Security Policy Rule Base is used to define VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections.
C. The Security Policy Rule Base is used to define VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections and is used to allow access to protected resources. The
RemoteAccess VPN Community applies only SecureClient.
D. The RemoteAccess VPN Community defines VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections and is used to allow access to protected resources. Security
Policy Rules are not defined for SecuRemote.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-310 demo   156-310 exam   156-310

NO.7 Which of the following encryption algorithms supports a key length from 128-bits to 256-bits and is
outlined in the new Federal Information Processing Standard publication?
A. AES (Ridndael)
B. CAST Cipher
C. 3DES
D. DES
E. Blowfish
Answer: A

CheckPoint exam dumps   156-310   156-310

NO.8 Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between VPN Domains and VPN
Communities?
A. A VPN Domain is a network, or group of networks, protected by and Enforcement Module. A VPN
Community is a collection of VPN Domains and the VPN tunnels between them.
B.
A VPN Domain is a remote-access VPN, consisting of a group of SecureClients and their associated
Enforcement Module. A VPN Community is a collection of Enforcement Module-to-Enforcement Module
VPNSs.
C. VPN Domains are used in Microsoft environments, and allow VPN-1/FireWall1- to communicate with
Domain Controllers. VPN Communities are used in Unix environments, to allow VPN-1/FireWall-1 to
communicate with authentication servers.
D. VPN Domains specify encryption properties and access restrictions for users. VPN Communities detail
encryption properties and access restrictions, for machines and processes.
E. VPN Domains are used for Security Policies created in traditional mode. VPN Communities are used in
simplified mode. VPN Domains are not available, if simplified mode is used.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-310   156-310 exam simulations   156-310   156-310 test

NO.9 Which of the following is NOT a feature or quality of a hash function?
A. It is mathematically infeasible to derive the original message from the message digest.
B. The hash function is irreversible.
C. It is mathematically infeasible for two different messages to produce the same message digest.
D. The hash function forms a two-way, secure communication.
E. Encrypted with the sender's RSA private key, the hash function forms the digital signature.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-310   156-310 test answers   156-310 exam

NO.10 Dr Bill is setting up a new VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module. The Rule Base
is configured to allow all traffic, and the Enforcement Module is set up as shown in
the screen capture below. Dr bill cannot get the new system to pass any traffic.
What is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
System specifications:
1. Processor: 2.2 GHz
2. RAM: 256 MB
3. Hard Disk: 10 GB
4. OS: Windows 2000 Server
Results of ipconfig/all
View the following exhibit for the results of ipconfig/all.
A. Routing is not properly configured.
B. The machine does not have enough RAM.
C. The processor is not fast enough.
D. The operating system is not supported.
E. The Rule Base is blocking traffic.
Answer: A

CheckPoint test   156-310   156-310   156-310

NO.11 Ken us assisting a user whose SecurityClient password has expired. The SecureClient user can no
longer
access resources in the VPN Domain. Which of the following solutions is likely to resolve the issue?
A. Ken must ask the VPN-1/FireWall-1 Security Administrator to change the setting Password Expires to a
date
in the future. Users cannot adjust their SecureClient passwords.
B. Ken should as the user to change his password, using the New Password option on SecureClient's
Passwords
menu. The user can change his password, then stop and start SecureClient.
C. If the SecureClient password is allowed to expire, the software will no longer function. Ken should help
the
user uninstall and reinstall SecureClient. The user will be prompted to supply a new password during
installation.
D. When the SecureClient password expires while a session is in progress, the session will not exit
properly.
Ken should ask the user to shut down and restart his computer. The user will be prompted to supply a
new
password after login.
E. The user must edit the userc.C file, to change the expiration date on his password. Ken should help the
user
make the necessary modifications to the userc.C file, using a text editor that does not insert Unicode
characters.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-310   156-310 test questions   156-310   156-310

NO.12 Which of the following is NOT a valid VPN configuration option available in the
VPN Manager of the Simplified Rule Base?
A. Point-to-Point
B. Mesh
C. Remote Access
D. Star with Meshed Center
E. Star
Answer: A

CheckPoint exam   156-310 test   156-310   156-310

NO.13 Which of the following does NOT require definition for a Voice over IP (VoIP)
Domain SIP object?
A. SIP Proxy
B. IP Address Range
C. VoIP Gateway
D. Related Endpoint Domain
E. Name
Answer: A

CheckPoint practice test   156-310   156-310   156-310 answers real questions

NO.14 Exhibit
Jacob configured a meshed VPN Community, with VPN properties set as shown below. Which of the
following statements are TRUE? (Choose two)
A. Jacob is using the default VPN property settings for a VPN-1/FireWall-1 meshed VPN Community.
B. Jacob's community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption, using the longest key
VPN-1/FireWall-1 supports.
C. Jacob must change the data-integrity settings for this VPN Community. MD5 is incompatible with AES.
D. If Jacob changes the setting Perform IPsec data encryption with: from AES-128 to 3DES, he will
increase
the encryption overhead.
E. If Jacob changes the setting, Perform key exchange encryption with: from 3DES to DES, he will
enhance the
VPN Community's security and reduce encryption overhead.
Answer: A, B

CheckPoint test questions   156-310   156-310

NO.15 Which of the following is NOT a method of Load Balancing with
VPN-1/FireWall-1?
A. Domain Load Balancing
B. Round Robin
C. Server Load
D. Round Trip
E. Quantum Load Balancing
Answer: E

CheckPoint   156-310   156-310   156-310 original questions

NO.16 The
_______ algorithm determines the load of each physical server and requires a Load Measuring
Agent be installed on each server.
A. Server Load
B. Server Relay
C. Round Robin
D. Domain
E. Round Trip
Answer: A

CheckPoint original questions   156-310   156-310

NO.17 Ann would like to deploy H.323 with a gatekeeper and gateway on her internal network. This network
is
behind a VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module. Which of the following objects is NOT required to
configure VPN-1/FireWall-1 for H.323 in this scenario?
A. Address Range representing internal IP-addressed phones
B. Gatekeeper Node Object
C. Address range of external IP-addressed phones
D. Voice over IP (VoIP) Gateway Node Object
E. Voice over IP (VoIP) Domain Object
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-310   156-310 study guide   156-310 exam   156-310

NO.18 Ann is a VPN-1/FireWall-1 Security Administrator. Her organization's solution for remote-access
security is SecureClient. Ann's organization is undergoing a security audit. The auditor is concerned,
because static passwords, such as VPN-1 & FireWall-1 and operating system passwords are cached on
the desktop, and users are not required to re-authenticate. Which of the following explanations addresses
the auditor's concerns?
A. The auditor has incorrect information. SecureClient caches all passwords. A strong encryption
algorithm
protects the proprietary database used for password caching, so there is never a need to purge cached
passwords.
B. The auditor has incorrect information. SecureClient never cached passwords. SecureClient users are
forced
to re-authenticate for each new connection, regardless of the type of password used.
C. Cached passwords are purged when SecureClient receives Policy and Topology updates. Most
installation
update Security Policies frequently, so cached passwords are rarely stored for longer than six to eight
hours.
Renaming the userc.C file to userc.old will also purge the password cache.
D. Cached passwords are purged at an interval specified in the Desktop Security Policy. As long as the
user.C
file is encrypted, users cannot tamper with the interval setting. The interval time is in seconds from the
time to
SecureClient software is launched.
E. Cached passwords are purged when SecureClient is stopped, when a connect mode is disconnected,
and
when the computer is rebooted. SecureClient users can manually purge the cache, by choosing the Erase
Passwords option from the Passwords menu.
Answer: E

CheckPoint test questions   156-310 test questions   156-310   156-310 exam

NO.19 Which of the following FTP Content Security settings prevents internal users from sending corporate
files to external FTP Servers, while allowing users to retrieve files?
A. Use an FTP resource, and enable the GET and PUT methods.
B. Use an FTP resource and enable the GET method.
C. Use an FTP resource and enable the PUT method.
D. Block FTP_PASV.
E. Block all FTP traffic.
Answer: B

CheckPoint exam simulations   156-310   156-310

NO.20 Which of the following is NOT a method used to configure SIP?
A. With SIP Proxies.
B. With a SIP Gatekeeper to a network without a proxy.
C. From a network without a proxy to a network with a proxy.
D. With a proxy for internal communications.
E. Without SIP Proxies.
Answer: B

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NO.21 Vered is a Security Administrator preparing to migrate her organization's IKE VPNs from pre-shared
secrets to PKI with certificates. Vered's organization has client-to-site VPNs between SecureClients and
Enforcement Modules, and site-to-site VPNs between Enforcement Modules. Vered will use the
VPN-1/FireWall-1 Internal Certificate Authority (ICA), to generate and maintain certificates. Which of
the following statements is TRUE?
Vered can:
A. Install and configure an OPSEC-certified Certificate Authority product. Vered cannot use the Internal
Certificate Authority (ICA) to accomplish this task.
B. Migrate the organization's site-to-site VPNs, but she cannot migrate the organization's client-to-site
VPNs.
C. Either migrate the PKI with certificates for her VPNs, or use the ICA for certificate generation and
maintenance. Vered cannot do both.
D. Migrate both the site-to-site VPNs and the client-to-site VPNs. She can use the ICA to generate and
maintain
certificates.
E. Migrate the organization's client-to-site VPNs, if she moves from SecureClient to SecuRemote. She
cannot
migrate the site-to-site VPNs.
Answer: D

CheckPoint certification   156-310 original questions   156-310   156-310 braindump

NO.22 You are using Hybrid IKE for Client Authentication. SecureClient produces the error Certifcation is
badly signed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem and the appropriate
solution?
A. Under the firewall object > VPN > IKE Properties > Support Authentication Methods, Hybrid Mode is
not
selected. Select the Hybrid Mode option, and stop and restart the Enforcement Module.
B. The Distinguished Name used is too long. Change it to a shorter name in the Manage Certificate
Properties screen.
C. The certificate created by the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) is corrupt. Create a new certificate.
D. The SecureClient and VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module to which it is attempting to connect are
running incompatible versions. Upgrade the SecureClient to NG with Application Intelligence.
E. The digital signature is missing. Add the digital signature to the certificate in the Manage Certificate
Properties screen.
Answer: A

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NO.23 If the Use Aggressive Mode check box in the IKE Properties dialogue box is
enabled:
A. The standard six-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a three-packet
exchange.
B. The standard three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a six-packet
exchange.
C. The standard three-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a six-packet
exchange.
D. The standard six-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a three-packet
exchange.
E. The standard three-packet IKE Phase 3 exchange is replaced by a six-packet exchange.
Answer: A

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NO.24 Static passwords such as VPN-1 & FirwWall-1 and operating system passwords are cached on the
desktop and users are not required to re-authenticate. Which of the following does NOT clear the
password cache?
A. Receives a policy update.
B. Perform a disconnect from a connect mode.
C. Selects the Stop VPN 1 SecuRemote option from the File menu.
D. Selects the Erase Passwords option from the Passwords menu.
E. Reboots the computer.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-310   156-310 test   156-310 braindump

NO.25 Which of the following statements BEST explains the difference between VPN-1/FireWall-1 logs and
alerts?
The difference between VPN-1/FireWall-1 logs and alerts is that:
A. Log entries contain detailed information about traffic. Alerts contain only brief descriptions of problems.
And links to the appropriate log entries.
B. Log entries are recorded in SmartView Tracker, and are persistent. Alerts appear only in SmartView
Status,
and are not persistent.
C. Logs are recorded sequentially, by date and time received. Alerts are arranged by priority and
magnitude.
D. Logging allows a Security Administrator to view historical connection information. Alerts are real-time
and
can be applied to a Security Policy's predefined tracking properties.
E. Logs are generated for explicit rules, defined by Security Administrators in the Security Policy. Alerts
are
automatically generated by implicit rules, created as a result of Global Properties settings.
Answer: D

CheckPoint certification   156-310 study guide   156-310 study guide

NO.26 All of the following are steps for implementing UFP, EXCEPT:
A. While the UFP Server is analyzing the requests, the Enforcement Module HTTP Proxy Server initiates
a
request to the destination. The HTTP Proxy server then waits for a response from the UFP Server before
allowing the request.
B. The client invokes a connection through the VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module.
C. The Content Server inspects the URLs and returns the validation result message to the Enforcement
Module.
D. The Enforcement Module takes the action defined in the Rule Base for the resource.
E. The Security Server uses UFP to send the URL to a third-party UFP Server categorization.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-310   156-310 exam   156-310

NO.27 Which of the following statements about IKE Encryption are TRUE? (Choose three
)
A. The final packet size is increased after it is encrypted.
B. TCP and IP headers are encrypted, along with the payload.
C. IKE uses in-place encryption.
D. IKE can use the FWZ1 encryption algorithm.
E. IKE uses tunneling encryption.
Answer: A, B, E

CheckPoint exam prep   156-310   156-310 questions   156-310 practice test

NO.28 VPN-1/FireWall-1 can be configured to enable Voice over IP (VoIP) traffic in which
of the following environments? (Choose two)
A. SIP
B. Q.931
C. G.723
D. DiffServ QOS
E. H.323
Answer: A, E

CheckPoint exam   156-310 questions   156-310   156-310 exam simulations   156-310

NO.29 If you are using SIP or SIP_ANY, and the Source or Destination is Any, which of the following
statements are TRUE concerning SIP Services? (Choose two)
If the Service is:
A. SIP_Any, and the Source is Any, the object represented by Any (internal or external) is SIP Proxy.
B. SIP_Any, and the Destination is Any, the object represented by Any (external only) is not a SIP Proxy.
C. SIP, and the Source is Any, the object represented by Any is allowed to redirect the connection, unless
it is a
SIP Proxy.
D. SIP, and the Destination is ANY, the object represented by Any is allowed to redirect the connection, so
it
must be a SIP Proxy.
E. SIP_Any, and the Source or Destination is Any, the object represented by Any (internal or external) is
always a SIP Proxy.
Answer: B, C

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NO.30 Which of the following is NOT a function of the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA)?
A. Provides certificates for users and Security Administrators.
B. Generated certificates for HTTPS Web server.
C. Establishes SIC between OPSEC applications and Check Point products.
D. Authentications SecureClient traffic to Enforcement Modules for VPNs.
E. Establishes SIC between Check Point products.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 9L0-062

Exam Name: Apple (Mac OS X v10.6 Troubleshooting Exam)

Exam Code: 9L0-506

Exam Name: Apple (Apple Certified Technical Coordinator)

Exam Code: 9L0-400

Exam Name: Apple (Mac OS X Help Desk Essentials v10.3)

Exam Code: 9L0-007

Exam Name: Apple (Macintosh Service Certification Exam)

Exam Code: 9L0-619

Exam Name: Apple (Mac OS X Deployment v10.5 Exam)

Exam Code: 9L0-621

Exam Name: Apple (Mac OS X Advanced System Administration v10.5 Exam)

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NO.1 .You are currently in the same directory as a file called "file 1". To view this file contents from the
command line you can type ________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. cat file 1
B. cat file\1
C. cat file \1
D. cat file\ 1
E. cat "file 1"
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 .About which THREE system properties will System Profiler provide information? (Choose
THREE.)
A. installed PCI cards
B. default network printer
C. configured share points
D. connected USB devices
E. connected FireWire devices
F. status of personal file sharing
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.3 .If Robert disables AppleTalk in the Directory Access utility on his iMac running Mac OS X v 10.3,
what is the result?
A. Robert cannot print to AppleTalk printers from his iMac.
B. Users on other computers cannot connect to Robert's iMac via AFP.
C. Robert iMac no longer discovers servers via AppleTalk.
D. Robert cannot connect to an AFP file server from his iMac.
Answer: C

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NO.4 .By default in Mac OS X v10.3, the contents of which folders in a user home directory can be
accessed by all other user accounts? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Documents
B. Library
C. Public
D. Music
E. Sites
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 In Mac OS X v10.3, you CANNOT use the Finder's "Connect to Server" command to select
________.
A. your iDisk
B. SSH servers
C. WebDAV servers
D. AFP servers
Answer: B

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NO.6 .Mac OS X v10.3 can only be installed on ________-formatted volumes. (Choose all that apply.)
A. HFS Plus
B. FAT32
C. NTFS
D. HFS
E. UFS
Answer: A,E

Apple   9L0-400 test   9L0-400

NO.7 .In a default Mac OS X v10.3 configuration, which TWO methods will launch the Classic
environment? (Choose TWO.)
A. Select the Mac OS 9 System Folder in the Startup Disk pane of System Preferences and
restart.
B. Launch SimpleText from the Applications (Mac OS 9) folder.
C. Click Start in the Classic pane of System Preferences.
D. Open the /System/Library/Classic/Startup file.
E. Launch TextEdit from the Dock.
Answer: B,C

Apple   9L0-400 study guide   9L0-400   9L0-400

NO.8 .Which command is found on Mac OS X v10.3, as well as on other versions of UNIX?
A. system_profiler
B. open
C. ls
D. ditto
Answer: C

Apple   9L0-400 test questions   9L0-400 braindump

NO.9 .Mac OS X v10.3 supports which kinds of VPN connections? (Choose all that apply.)
A. PPoE
B. L2TP
C. PPTP
D. NAT
E. P2P
Answer: B,C

Apple certification training   9L0-400   9L0-400

NO.10 .In Mac OS X v10.3, the default permissions for Group and Others on the Drop Box folder in a user
Public folder are ________.
A. Read only
B. Read & Write
C. Write only
D. No Access
Answer: C

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NO.11 .Mac OS X v10.3 Internet Sharing lets you share your Internet connection with other users via
________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. AirPort
B. Ethernet
C. Bluetooth
D. Modem
E. USB
Answer: A,B

Apple exam simulations   9L0-400   9L0-400   9L0-400

NO.12 .Which THREE tasks can you perform with Disk Utility? (Choose THREE.)
A. Erase a CD-RW disk.
B. Determine disk usage by user name.
C. Verify and repair a UFS-formatted disk.
D. Create an encrypted partition on a hard disk.
E. Discover details about top-level directories on a FireWire disk drive.
F. Discover details about a FireWire disk drive such as size and configuration.
Answer: A,C,F

Apple   9L0-400   9L0-400   9L0-400

NO.13 .To set up PPPoE, which port must you configure?
A. AppleTalk
B. Ethernet
C. FireWire
D. Modem
Answer: B

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NO.14 .Which statement about FileVault is TRUE?
A. FileVault can only be enabled for non-administrator user accounts.
B. Once a user enables FileVault, it cannot be disabled.
C. There is no way to recover a FileVault-protected account user data if the password is lost.
D. When a user enables FileVault, that user home directory is transferred into an encrypted disk
image.
Answer: D

Apple   9L0-400 study guide   9L0-400   9L0-400

NO.15 .Dynamic service discovery protocols on Mac OS X v10.3 include ________. (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Active Directory
B. Rendezvous
C. AppleTalk
D. NetInfo
E. LDAP
F. SMB
Answer: B,C,F

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Exam Code: 3M0-212

Exam Name: 3COM (Certified Enterprise LAN Pre-Sales Expert version 3.2)

Exam Code: 3M0-700

Exam Name: 3COM (Certified IP Telephony Specialist)

Exam Code: 3M0-211

Exam Name: 3COM (Certified Enterprise LAN Specialist )

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NO.1 How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?
A. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs
B. NBX phones tag voice packets using DiffServ for all LAN communication
C. NBX phones use VLAN-tagged frames with the priority level automatically set to 6
D. NBX phones place audio traffic into a priority queue within the NCP, forwarding all voice traffic before
forwarding data packets
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two are features of the NBX NetSet Administration Utility? (Choose two.)
A. Allows users to sign on with a username of "user" and use their voicemail password for access
B. Is found on 3Com's NBX systems, as well as, licensed 3rd party Ethernet-based telephony systems
C. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.190.
D. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.191.
E. Allows the administrator to sign on with a username of "administrator" and a password of "0000" for
access
Answer: CE

3COM practice test   3M0-700 questions   3M0-700 original questions   3M0-700

NO.3 Which three are maintenance alert features on the NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Can send alert to voicemail
B. Can send alert to a pager or email
C. Can send alert to 3rd party voice messaging systems
D. Can be configured to send alerts to up to 15 mailboxes
E. Can be configured to send an alert for any physical device failure
F. Maintenance alert function is supported on the NBX 100 Communications System only
Answer: ABD

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NO.4 What is the easiest way for the NBX system administrator to set up calling permissions and/or
restrictions for a group of users?
A. Define a Type of Service (ToS) and then assign the ToS to each user
B. Define a Class of Service (CoS) and then assign the CoS to each user
C. Define a User Configuration and then assign the Configuration to each user
D. Define a Type of Service (ToS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new
ToS
E. Define a Class of Service (CoS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new
CoS
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two are features of an NBX Calling Group? (Choose two.)
A. Member phones ring simultaneously for incoming calls
B. Calling Groups are the same as NBX Key Mode configuration
C. Up to 100 Calling Groups can be configured on an NBX 100 system
D. NBX administrator can define "ring progression" for a Calling Group
E. Member login/logout password is defined by NBX administrator using NetSet
Answer: AE

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NO.6 Which of the following terms are associated with Emergency 911?
A. 911 Database
B. ACT -Automatic Caller Tracking
C. PSAP-Public Safety Access Point
D. ALI -Automatic Location Identification
E. ANI-Automatic Number Identification
F. PEAP -Public Emergency Access Point
Answer: ACDE

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NO.7 Which three are prioritization mechanisms used with the NBX Communication Systems? (Choose
three.)
A. IP TOS
B. Diff Serv
C. IEEE 802.3
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. ANSI 96/RS232
Answer: ABD

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NO.8 Which two are accurate statements? (Choose two.)
A. NBX 100 supports 48 VTLs
B. NBX V5000 supports 48 VTLs
C. NBX V3000 supports 48 VTLs
D. NBX V5000 supports 72 VTLs
Answer: BC

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NO.9 Which four Call Forward user settings are available to a user logged into NetSet on a NBX
Communication System? (Choose four.)
A. Forward calls to voicemail box
B. Forward calls to an e-mail inbox
C. Disconnect (no forwarding) calls
D. Forward calls to another phone number
E. Forward calls to an Automated Attendant
F. Do not ring, which places the caller into voice mail
G. Forward calls to the LCD Directory so the caller can contact another employee if they choose
Answer: ACDE

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NO.10 A manager at extension 3002 has asked you to setup a NBX Communication System to allow an
assistant at extension 1010 to filter calls. You have decided the best way to do this is Bridged Station
Appearance. You have already setup the primary phones button mappings. Which is the correct
extension number to add to the secondary phone Bridged Extension Number Field?
A. 1010
B. 1010-2
C. 3002
D. 3002-2
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which four are features of the NBX Analog Line Card? (Choose four.)
A. An NBX V5000 chassis supports only one Analog Line card at a time
B. The NBX Auto Discover Line Cards function can be used to find newly installed Analog Line Cards
C. In Key System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card can be mapped to one or more
telephones
D. Its Power Failure Jack provides access to the telephone CO in case of a NBX power failure
E. By default, when a port is mapped to multiple telephones, calls will ring at the lowest extension first,
then to the next extension, until the call is
Answered
F. In PBX System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card are pooled and allocated by the Call
Processor for use by any phone for outbound calls
G. In Hybrid Mode, incoming calls go to an Auto Attendant only and CO lines are pooled and allocated by
the Call Processor for use by any phone on the system
Answer: BCDF

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NO.12 Which four are features of the NBX QSIG Basic Service support? (Choose four.)
A. Recommended for use on a PSTN public network
B. Passes Caller ID information across QSIG tie lines
C. NBX system only functions in Slave Mode operation
D. Used to nest traditional PBX systems behind an NBX
E. Supports fractional QSIG on the NBX Digital Line Cards
F. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling, useful for implementing tie trunks
G. Connects 3rd party PBX systems with Master Mode support to an NBX system
Answer: BCFG

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NO.13 Which two devices are not supported by an NBX Analog Terminal Card (ATC) or Analog Terminal
Adapter (ATA)? (Choose two.)
A. Modem
B. FAX machine
C. Cordless phone
D. Credit card reader
E. External bell or pager
F. Standard telephone that requires a DTMF connection
Answer: AD

3COM certification training   3M0-700   3M0-700

NO.14 Which three best describe how members Login/Logout of a Hunt Group? (Choose three.)
A. Group members can login and logout as their schedule requires
B. A forced login member is always logged in whether they are at their phone or not
C. To login/logout a user only needs to pickup their phone and enter their voice mail password
D. Administrator can set optional automatic logout to force a logout if an incoming call is not
Answered at a phone
E. All members must login only once during the day. They are automatically logged out at the end of the
day based on the NBX System Business Time definition
F. A dynamic login member must login at the start of a day and will only need to login again if they are
logged out after 15 minutes pass between phone calls
Answer: ABD

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NO.15 Which four are characteristics or requirements for NBX Bridge Station Appearance (BSA) assuming
only 3102 business phones are used in the customer location? (Choose four.)
A. Maps a primary phone to a secondary phone
B. Only need to configure the primary phone settings
C. Up to 16 extensions can be mapped to a common secondary phone
D. To configure BSA settings select Device Configuration / Telephones then select Button Mappings
E. Either phone can
Answer a call, as incoming primary-phone calls appear on primary and secondary phone
F. Incoming calls to primary phone are automatically transferred to secondary phone based on
time-of-day settings
Answer: ACDE

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NO.16 Which three best describe PRI QSIG? (Choose three.)
A. For use on PSTN only
B. Is a proprietary 3Com protocol
C. Designed for IP-PBX to TAPI Server
D. For use on private lines, leased lines or VPN only
E. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling for tie line support
F. Requires clocking (Master mode) by one end station (PBX)
Answer: DEF

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NO.17 Which three are true statements concerning Silence Suppression? (Choose 3.)
A. Enabling Silence Suppression prioritizes voice traffic
B. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system only
C. Can be enabled or disabled only for individual telephones
D. Enabling Silence Suppression reduces network traffic
E. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system, or for individual telephones and line card ports
F. A device that detects silence in a conversation will not send any packets to the other device during the
period of silence
G. A device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a "silence indicator,"rather than
a full packet of "digitized silence"
Answer: DEG

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NO.18 How does the NBX administrator load a local country Dial Plan, for example, Norway or Portugal?
A. Dial Plan / Tables/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
B. Dial Plan / Operations/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
C. Dial Plan / Tables/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
D. Dial Plan / Operations/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems?
(Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN
link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can
call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from
HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
D. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a
Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With a NBX system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/from the sites
via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example, VPN, T1, E1 and Frame Relay
Answer: ADE

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NO.20 The NBX Dial Plan supports Direct Inward Dialing/Dialed Number Identification Service (DID/DNIS).
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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