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NO.1 Sunil is designing a portal cluster for production. He is using a 32-bit version of IBM
WebSphere Portal server and has several multiprocessor servers with 16 GB of memory.
What type of cluster configuration should he use?
A. A vertical cluster, because it ensures minimal latency between cluster members.
B. A horizontal cluster, because it provides fault tolerance.
C. A combination of vertical and horizontal clusters to gain the benefits of both configuration types.
D. A multi-production cluster because it meets both high-availability and high-performance criteria.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following direct migration paths to IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 are supported.?
A. WebSphere Portal 5.1.0.x and 6.1.0.x.
B. WebSphere Portal 6.0.0.x and 7.0.0.x.
C. WebSphere Portal 6.1.5.x and 7.0.0.x.
D. All of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The business units of Mary's company have needs for their own portals. However, the
demand on server resources is not great enough to require parallel installations. In response, Mary's
company selected virtual portals.
Which of the following options are available across each of the virtual portals by default?
A. Portal search
B. Document management
C. Portal property file definitions
D. Anonymous pages per virtual portal
Answer: D

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NO.4 What parameters need to be modified in the Installation Manager response file to change
the default port numbers during a silent installation?
A. -W portBlockInput.startingPortToScan=port number -W portBlockInput.endingPortToScan=port
number
-W portBlockInput.portBlockSize=blocksize
B. <data key='user.wp.admin.port,com.ibm.websphere.PORTAL.SERVER.v80'
value='<port>'/>and<data
key='user.wp.portal.port,com.ibm.websphere.PORTAL.SERVER.v80' value='<port>'/>
C. <port.admin='<port>'/>and<port.wps='<port>'/>
D. IBM WebSphere Portal always scans for active ports at 10000 and ends at 65000 during
installation.
This behavior cannot be affected usingcommand parameters.
Answer: B

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NO.5 IBM has confirmed that a single IBM WebSphere Portal installation can support __________
Virtual Portals.
A. 65
B. 115
C. 300
D. 215
E. All of the above.
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which of the following tools is not used by an IBM WebSphere Portal administrator for staging
data to a production environment?
A. Managed Pages
B. Syndication
C. Release Builder
D. XMLAccess
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which option best describes the workflows that can be achieved using the IBM WebSphere
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A. Enabling security.
B. Enabling security, transferring the portal database, and connecting to an existing database.
C. Enabling security, and transferring the portal database.
D. Enabling security, transferring the portal database, connecting to an existing database, and
enabling
IBM Lotus Domino integration(collaborative features, directory integration, and so on).
Answer: B

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NO.8 Bob is building a site that is displayed using either IBM Web Content Manager or a web server.
It is not using any IBM WebSphere Portal features such as portlets. The content is static and is only
updated periodically.
What delivery mechanism is best suited for this scenario?
A. Servlet delivery
B. Pre-rendered delivery
C. Local, web-content, viewer delivery
D. Remote, web-content, viewer delivery
Answer: B

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NO.1 Why is it important that error pages are correctly defined?
A. IBM Security AppScan Standard Edition cannot handle redirection without correctly defined error
pages.
B. IBM Security AppScan Standard Edition cannot maintain session state without correctly defined
error pages.
C. If IBM Security AppScan Standard Edition understands the application's request is an error, it can
more properly pass or fail certain tests.
D. If IBM Security AppScan Standard Edition understands the application's response is an error, it can
more properly pass or fail certain tests.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which three statements are true about configuring an IBM Security AppScan Standard Edition
test policy?
A. A test policy can be searched.
B. A test policy cannot be changed.
C. A test policy contains error page definitions.
D. A test policy can be grouped by its OWASP classification.
E. A test policy contains advisory information about each test.
F. A test policy can be configured to include or exclude test variants.
Answer: A,C,F

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Reference:http://pic.dhe.ibm.com/infocenter/apsshelp/v8r6m0/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.ib
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NO.3 Where would you configure AppScan to identify itself, and the exact stage of the scan, in each
HTTP request?
A. Custom Headers identify as AppScan
B. Custom Headers > Include AppScan debug headers in all requests
C. Advanced Configuration View > Include AppScan debug headers in all requests
D. Advanced Custom Parameters > Include AppScan debug headers in all requests
Answer: C

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NO.4 In the Automatic Form Fill window, if the URL field is blank for a particular row, which value will
be passed for that row's parameter?
A. Blank
B. That row's parameter value
C. The parameter will be skipped.
D. The value of the "Fill unknown fields with" box
Answer: B

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NO.5 What information is available when a vulnerability is discovered via traditional dynamic testing
(i.e. not via Glassbox testing or JavaScript analysis)?
A. Fix recommendation
B. Line number of the affected code
C. Automatic code correction button
D. Directory and file location of the affected code
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three finding types can the IBM Security AppScan Standard Edition malware module
identify?
A. Link Injections
B. Broken external links
C. Unwanted internal links
D. Malicious external links
E. Unwanted external links
F. Unclassified external links
Answer: D,E,F

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NO.7 Where can you configure Multi-Step Operations?
A. Explore > Manual Explore
B. Tools > Options > Multi-Step Operations
C. Job Configuration > Multi-Step Operations
D. Scan Configuration > Multi Step Operations
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which situation presents a valid reason for reducing the severity ofvulnerability?
A. A Medium severity Link Injection vulnerability should be reduced when it only occurs on a login
page.
B. A High severity SQL Injection vulnerability should be reduced when the affected database is read
only.
C. A High severity Cross-Site Scripting vulnerability is confirmed to be a Reflected XSS and would
require user authentication to be exploited.
D. A High severity Unencrypted Login Request vulnerability should be reduced when the application
is using a database that is encrypted with Triple DES (Data Encryption Standard) and a 168 bit key.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which statement is true?
A. Worklight Console is where services connectivity may be configured for the mobile application.
B. Worklight Console allows for the creation of a user experience based on open source libraries and
HTML5.
C. Worklight Console is not connected to Worklight Server or ID
D. Worklight Console allows for push notifications, version control and direct updates.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which customer scenario represents the most ideal prospect for IBM Worklight Platform?
A. The customer that wants a pure native application and is looking to their digital design agency,
that built their ecommerce website, to now build their mobile application.
B. The customer that is looking for a solution to help build mobile hybrid applications in house by
their web development team.
C. The customer that believes they do not need a presence on commercial App Stores and just
wants a server side mobile web experience for their customers.
D. The customer that is looking for a simple single app for a single device for its internal employees.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A developer creating mobile applications combining native and standard web technologies will
use:
A. IBM Worklight Studio (The product's IDE).
B. Their own Mac machine using Xcode
C. Hybrid applications using Objective-C
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.1 A team wants to make some attributes mandatory when work items are created. In order to
meet this objective, want can be done in Rational Team Concert ?
A. Work item attributes are all optional by design and there is no way to define mandatory
attributes for work items
B. Add a precondition to the Work Item Save operation to define which fields in a work item must
be filled in before it can be saved
C. Work item attributes are all mandatory by design. Users who create a work item are required to
fill in all the attributes.
D. Add a follow-up action to the Work Item Save operation to define the error message to display
when mandatory attributes are not filled in
Answer: B

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NO.2 When does the RTC SCM detect conflicts? (Choose two.)
A. When incoming and outgoing change sets are coming from the same user
B. When incoming and outgoing change sets include changes to the same file
C. When incoming and outgoing change sets include changes to the same folders
D. When incoming and outgoing change sets are coming from two different users
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 What is the velocity for a development team following the Scrum process template?
A. the average number of hours the team can deliver in an iteration
B. the average number of stories the team can deliver in an iteration
C. the average number of story points the team can deliver in an iteration
D. the average number of tasks the team can deliver in an iteration
Answer: C

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NO.4 In an iteration plan, which value is represented by the length of the progress bar
A. The amount of work estimated
B. The amount of work completed
C. The amount of work on schedule
D. The amount of active work
Answer: B

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NO.5 An organization uses the Formal Project Management process template for a project. Some
work items in the Gantt chart view of an iteration plan for the project are shown in red. What does
red indicate?
A. high severity
B. high priority
C. on the critical path
D. unassigned
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. The Deliver operation copies change sets from the repository workspace to the flow target.
B. The Check-In operation copies files modified from the local sandbox to the repository workspace.
C. The Check-Out operation copies files from the repository workspace into the local sandbox.
D. The Accept operation copies change sets from the flow target into the repository workspace and
local sandbox.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 What is the main purpose of the work item discussion section?
A. to add notes and exchange information about the work item
B. to assign the owner of the work item
C. to move the work item through its lifecycle to the resolved state
D. to associate a work item with a release
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are configurable items for the process template?
A. timelines, iterations, roles, and operational behaviors
B. plugins, cheat sheets, and dependencies
C. Java source code, source comments, and event handlers
D. categories, releases, and access control
Answer: A

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NO.1 A Model has property values that change frequently, and these changes are communicated by an
external vendor. The modeler needs to make these changes as required. What is the MOST efficient way
of updating the Model with these frequent changes?
A. Make the changes in the database table.
B. Make the changes using the Visual Modeler.
C. Export the current Model and make changes in the Model XML. Import the changed Model.
D. Create a common Worksheet and maintain it externally in a Comma Separated Value (CSV) file.
Upload it with the new property values.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A Model is developed per the following image:
To ensure consistency and control of priorities, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. "Property, D" will always be equal to 5.
B. The formula cannot be attached to property as depicted in the image.
C. To ensure that the value of "Property, D" is 7 after Model execution, change the priority of formula firing
so that the formula for deriving "Property, C" is fired before the formula for "Property, D".
D. To ensure that the value of "Property, C" is calculated before the value of "Property, D", replace the
formula with two rules. Rule1 calculates "Property, C" and Rule2 calculates "Property, D". Set the priority
for Rule1 is set to 40, and the priority of Rule2 to 50.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A company wants to give its customers a 10% volume discount for its Professional Services if the order
totals 100 or more hours. The $250 hourly (undiscounted) base rate for Professional Services is retained
in an Option Item under an Option Class called base rates in the model and is never displayed in the UI.
Rules will be used to set the UI: PRICE for the Professional Services Option Item displayed in the UI
based on the quantity of hours ordered and the UI: PRICE of the hidden base rate Option Item.
Review the following images which show what is presented to the user in the UI with and without a
discount.
When creating these assignment rules, which function needs to be used to retrieve the hourly base rate
for Professional Services?
A. sum
B. value
C. lookup
D. propval
Answer: D

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NO.4 When naming properties, a modeler avoids using names that start with an "_" (underscore). The
modeler is correct to do this, because names that start with an "_" (underscore) are which type of
properties?
A. UI Properties
B. UEV Properties
C. System Properties
D. Rule Trace Properties
Answer: C

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NO.5 A modeler has to create a rule with many fragments. In which order should the fragments be set up for
better performance?
A. The nested fragments should come first.
B. The least probable fragment should come first.
C. The sequence of the fragments do not make any difference.
D. The fragments that use custom function handlers should come first.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A major bike manufacturer sells customizable bikes online, and includes assembly and shipping. For a
bike to be completed, the user must select a frame, tires and gear systems. There are several choices
available for the user in each category, but there are some compatibility issues between certain types of
frames and the third-party gear systems that the manufacturer uses. For example, there are three sizes
the bike frames: 19" 20" and 22". There are three models of gear systems that the manufacturer offers:
6.speed, 18-speed and 24-speed. While 6-speed and 18speed fits all the frame sizes, 24-speed is a
premium exclusive model and fits only the 22". The requirement calls for compatibility to be pointed out to
the user. What is the correct way to model this product?
A. Use a rule to automatically fix compatibility issues.
B. Use a Constraint Table to manage the allowable configurations.
C. Use a list to list down the different options available for each frame.
D. Define different properties for gear system 24-speed to distinguish it from 6-speed and 18speed.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A modeler wants to give a discount on the price of cars, but only if the following conditions are
satisfied:
The modeler creates a rule for this and it is set to trigger on success. How will this rule condition be
defined in the Visual Modeler?
B
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
Answer: C

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NO.8 A car manufacturer wants to display a list of available cars based on what the customer chooses for the:
What should be the rule fragment/condition written for this?
A. value(AvailableCars) not in list(CarType) [Fragment is false]
B. value(AvailableCars) not in propval(CarType) [Fragment is false]
C. propval(AvailableCars) not in list(CarType) [Fragment is false]
D. propval(AvailableCars) not in parent(CarType) [Fragment is false]
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which two pieces of information must be collected in order to select the appropriate
monitoring agent? (Choose two.)
A. The applications to be monitored.
B. The firewalls in the company's network.
C. The size of the data warehouse database.
D. The operating system of the servers to be monitored.
E. The operating system of the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server.
Answer: A,D

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5. According to the IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Installation and Setup Guide, what is the
maximum number of agents that a remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (RTEMS) can handle?
A. 500
B. 1500
C. 2500
D. 3500
Answer: B

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6. When planning to deploy a KDE Gateway, which two IBM Tivoli Monitoring components must
be configured to add the KDE Gateway configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Warehouse Proxy Agent
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent
D. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
E. Summarization and Pruning Agent
Answer: C,D

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7. Which protocol can an agent use to send messages to an event management system when the
agent is running in Autonomous mode?
A. XML
B. SSH
C. SOAP
D. SNMP
Answer: D

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8. An agentless monitoring server is installed with these active agentless monitor instance types
started: 2AIX, 2 Linux, 2 Solaris, 2 Windows.What is the maximum number of systems that can be
monitored?
A. 8
B. 80
C. 800
D. 8000
Answer: C

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9. Which three database products are supported for the Tivoli Data Warehouse database?
(Choose three.)
A. Derby
B. Oracle
C. Sybase
D. MS SQL
E. IBM DB2
F. IBM Informix
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 A customer wants fully autonomous monitoring for their operating systems which are based in
a place with these restrictions:
The traditional operating system agents (the knt, klz, and kux agents that monitor the Windows,
Linux, and UNIX operating environments) cannot be used directly.
Which statement is true in order to meet the customer's requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) will not be the right solution because of the relatively large agent
footprint.
B. ITM will not be the right solution because Java is required for all ITM agents to operate.
C. The traditional ITM operating system agents must be configured for Autonomous Mode.
D. The customer will have to deploy the System Monitor Agents which provide autonomous-only
monitoring for their operating systems.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are two considerations before installing any IBM Tivoli Monitoring component in an
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A. Open only one port on the firewall(s).
B. Opening as few ports on the firewall(s) as possible.
C. The existing firewall(s) must be moved and/or uninstalled.
D. Location of components to be installed relation to existing firewall(s).
E. If a single or multiple firewall exists then the KDE gateway must be used.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 What information must be collected in order to plan a Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
in an IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 (ITM) implementation?
A. The location of the servers to be monitored.
B. Which applications are running on the monitored servers?
C. The number of servers and applications monitored by ITM.
D. How many users are logged into each of the monitored servers?
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M2050-244
Exam Name: IBM Optimization Sales Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 Which of the following applications do NOT benefit from Optimization.?
A. Portfolio management
B. Scheduling advertisements on TV channels
C. Credit Application processing
D. Employee management
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement does NOT apply to Optimization?
A. It is the same as business simulation.
B. It helps companies make choices to reach a target while observing limits and data.
C. It improves resource utilization (e.g., Capital, equipments, facilities).
D. It helps companies provide better customer service.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which type of problem is CPLEX NOT well equipped to solve?
A. Nonlinear Program
B. Linear Program
C. Quadratic Program
D. Integer Program
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following features are NOT provided by ODME?
A. Data Visualization and editing.
B. Scenario Management and Collaborative planning.
C. Out of the box Client/Server Architecture.
D. Web-enabled client/Thin Client.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT a key element in qualifying an IBM ILOG Optimization
sales opportunity?
A. Can the System be Optimized?
B. Problem can be formulated in nested if , then , else statements.
C. Can you understand the relationships between choices and outcomes?
D. Is data readily available?
Answer: A

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Exam Code: P6040-017
Exam Name: IBM SurePOS 700 Series Models 7x3 Technical Mastery
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NO.1 Which three are standard features of the IBM SurePOS 700 models 723 and S23 (also
known as the
entry-level models)? (Choose three.)
A. 10/100 Ethernet
B. VIA C7 processor
C. CD/DVD combo drive
D. 10/100/1000 Ethernet
E. 80 GB hard disk drive
F. 256 MB DDR2 base memory
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.2 A customer is considering upgrading to the SurePOS 7x3 systems. They need two
PCI slots and they
are concerned about PCI compatibility, restrictions, and limitations. What information should
a technical
specialist provide this customer? (Choose two.)
A. Full-length PCI feature cards are not supported.
B. The 7x3 provides support for only two PCI Express slots.
C. PCI slots are only available as a standard feature on the SurePOS 783 models.
D. There is nothing to worry about, since all SurePOS 7x3 models have two PCI slots that will
accommodate full-size and short PCI cards.
E. If a customer has two PCI adapters to migrate forward they will need to select the
additional riser
option that provides two PCI slots.
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 Which two standard features do all SurePOS 7x3 models have in common.? (Choose
two.)
A. dual video
B. hard disk drive
C. CD/DVD combo drive
D. 512 MB DDR2 base memory
E. Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) 0/1 technology
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 On which model is an 80GB hard disk drive and a CD/DVD standard?
A. S83
B. C83
C. S43
D. C43
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two IBM SurePOS models ship standard with a hard disk drive? (Choose two.)
A. SurePOS C models
B. SurePOS E models
C. SurePOS 720 models
D. SurePOS 740 models
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 What are the two search categories available in the Knowledgebase database on the
RSS Web site?
(Choose two.)
A. IBM information
B. SurePOS information
C. Point of Sale information
D. Retail Systems information
E. Self-Service Solution information
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 What is the standard warranty service type offered for SurePOS 7x3 systems?
A. Depot Service
B. Carry in Service
C. IBM On-Site Repair
D. IBM EasyServ Repair
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two types of devices cannot be auto-sensed by the diagnostics tool? (Choose
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A. USB devices
B. fiscal devices
C. RS-232 devices
D. RS-485 devices
Answer: B,C

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NO.1 Which of the following best describes IBM MobileFirst?
A. MobileFirst is a portfolio of solutions enabling customers to support the full lifecycle of mobile
application development
B. MobileFirst is an architecture enabling customers to develop a business process solution and
requires customers to start by identifying their wireless networking capabilities
C. MobileFirst is an approach to creating mobile applications for companies that haven't yet built
their first mobile application
D. MobileFirst is an IBM product that enables customers to purchase everything they need to build
mobile applications by purchasing a single packaged product
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are the DevOps for Mobile Continuous Testing automation capabilities?
A. Browser Simulator, Unit Test, User Acceptance Test
B. Selenium Unit Test, UlAndroidTest, Integration Test
C. Functional Testing, Web Service Functional Testing, Performance Testing, Test Virtualization, and
collaborative manual testing
D. Record and Playback only in device clouds
Answer: C

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NO.3 TRUE or FALSE: Tealeaf CX Mobile is an add-on to the Tealeaf CX platform?
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www-03.ibm.com/software/products/en/cx-mobile

NO.4 What is the major enhancement in AppScan 8.7 for mobile security?
A. Support for Blackberry applications
B. Support for touch screen mobile devices
C. Integration with Worklight
D. Support for Objective-C
Answer: D

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NO.5 Where would you go to find more information on Trusteer Products?
A. Trusteer Sales Kit
B. Trusteer Product Overview
C. Trusteer Mobile Datasheet
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 The IBM Mobile Customer Engagement (Xtify) portfolio includes everything EXCEPT:
A. XML-formatted documents
B. Native Push
C. Rich Push
D. Web Push
E. SMS solutions
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which three of the following options does the dsjob command have? (Choose three.)
A. Stopping a job
B. Setting an alias for a job
C. Specifying an appropriate log file
D. Listing projects,jobs,stages,links,and parameters
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 When you configure a domain for source code integration a source control workspace is
created. What are two reasons for the source control workspace? (Choose two.)
A. default directory for istool exports.
B. directory for deployment package files
C. local transfer area for assets being submitted to the source control system
D. provides a place to store the archive created by IS source code control integration
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Click on the Exhibit button.
Provided you have enough system resources, what is the maximum number of jobs that could be
running concurrently in this image?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are working on a project that contains a large number of jobs contained in many folders.
You would like to review the jobs created by the former developer of the project. How can you find
these jobs?
A. Filter jobs in Director Client's Repository window.
B. Sort the jobs by date in the Repository window.
C. Use the Advanced Find feature contained in the Designer interface.
D. While selecting the top folder in the project,choose Find Dependencies.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are responsible for the projects Source Code Repository. When a developer notifies you
that changes are ready to deploy you must first check them in. You will use the Information Server
Source Code integration features to check in the changed assets. How will you identify the
DataStage assets the developer modified in order to send them to the workspace?
A. From the Information Server Manager Select the project then right-click on Synchronize with
source code control system.
B. Use Designer client Advanced Find,specify a modification date and the developer's username in
the Modified by fields.
C. From Information Server Manager use Search with advanced options,specify a date modified and
the developer's user name in the Modified by fields.
D. From the workspace perspective select the project Right-click then Refresh from
repository,specify a modification date and the developer's username in the Modified by fields.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are about to begin major changes to jobs in a project. You want to conveniently identify
job changes on an ad hoc basis. What two tasks will allow you to identify changes to your jobs?
(Choose two.)
A. Import the original job from a .dsx export.
B. Select the job,then right click Compare within.
C. Select the job,then right click Cross Project Compare.
D. Before making a change to a job make a copy of the job in a different category folder.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 You are responsible for deploying objects into your customers production environment. To
ensure the stability of the production system the customer does not permit compilers on
production machines. They have also protected the project and only development machines have
the required compiler. What two options will allow jobs with a parallel transformer to execute in the
customers production machines? (Choose two.)
A. Add $APT_COMPILE_OPT=-portable
B. Set $APT_COPY_TRANSFORM_OPERATOR
C. Export the jobs with Information Server Manager with the executables.
D. Create a package with Information Server Manager and select the option to include executables.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 You have been asked to delete a shared container from the project by your customer. Before
you do this you want to make sure it will not impact other objects in the project. How will you
ensure that deleting the shared container will not cause a failure when jobs are recompiled?
A. Select the shared container,Right-click on the Where used command.
B. Select the shared container,Right-click on the Where used (deep) command.
C. Select the shared container,Right-click on the Dependencies (deep) command.
D. Advanced find,set Dependencies Of field equal to the container name,and Check the Option to
Include nested results for Dependency searches.
Answer: B

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NO.1 How can Kenexa's Performance Management solutions improve the way organizations are
managing their performance solutions today?
A. Provide access to standard appraisals
B. Built in standard goal setting
C. Functionality that allows a manager to determine pay increases based on performance
D. Provide a suite of capabilities along with deep competency knowledge
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is a typical deal size for a Performance Management solution?
A. $100to$200k
B. S200 to $300k
C. S300to$400k
D. $400to$500k
Answer: A

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NO.3 What percentage of organizations in the world are currently looking to replace their Learning
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A. 25%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 60%
Answer: B

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NO.4 The Kenexa LMS (Learning Management System) performs all of the following capabilities
EXCEPT:
A. Manage classroom training, elearning, mobile content/surveys and online social learning
B. Automate the development and publishing of modular personalized learning
C. Administrate content and courses in support of a classroom, online or social learning
environment
D. Track and report on curriculum status for a learner
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the most important benefit of having a Performance Management system for an
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pay programs with linkages to performance
B. The ability to compare candidates side-by-side for fair and accurate analyses
C. The ability to have an integrated process that supports and provides insight into performance
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D. The ability to configure any number of performance forms to any process
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the typical selling cycle for a Performance Management solution?
A. 1 to 3 Months
B. 3 to 6 Months
C. 6 to 9 Months
D. 9 to 12 Months
Answer: A

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NO.1 Given the following SQL:
Which statement is incorrect?
A. The procedure declaration requires the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS 1 clause in order to return a result
set.
B. The cursor declaration requires the WITH RETURN TO CLIENT clause in order to return a result set.
C. The cursor declaration requires the WITH RETURN TO CALLER clause in order to return a result set.
D. The cursor declaration requires the WITH RETURN clause in order to return a result set.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Click on the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the OUT_PHONENUMBERS result set when the SQL procedure is
invoked by the call statement shown below? CALL
find_customers(ARRAY[?16-305-3745? ?05-416-4565? ?16-305-3746? '905-414-4566'], ?16??)
A. [?16-305-3745??05-416-4565? ?16-305-3746']
B. [?16-305-3745??05-416-4565? ?16-305-3746? '905-414-4566']
C. [?05-416-4565? '905-414-4566']
D. [?16-305-3745? ?16-305-3746[?16-305-3745? ?16-305-3746?
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which CREATE PROCEDURE statement option should be used if you plan on issuing a DECLARE
GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE statement from within the SQL procedure body?
A. CONTAINS SQL
B. READS SQL DATA
C. MODIFIES SQL DATA
D. LANGUAGE SQL
Answer: C

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NO.4 In the stored procedure below: What will the value of the P_ID parameter be if the procedure is
invoked and a value of 2 is specified for the START_VALUE parameter?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which procedure demonstrates the correct use of dynamic SQL?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count1 (INnew_count INTEGER, IN item_code INTEGER) BEGIN
DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200); SET v_dynSQL = 'UPDATE stock SET quantity_on_hand=?
WHERE item_number=?'; PREPARE v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL; EXECUTE v_stmt1 USING new_count,
item_code; END
B. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count2 (INtab_name VARCHAR(128), IN new_count INTEGER, IN
item_code INTEGER) BEGIN DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200); SET v_dynSQL = 'UPDATE ? SET
quantity_on_hand=? WHERE item_number=?'; PREPARE v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL; EXECUTE
v_stmt1 USING tab_name, new_count, item_code; END
C. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count4 (INtab_name VARCHAR(128), IN col_name1
VARCHAR(128), IN col_name2 VARCHAR(128), IN new_countINTEGER, IN item_code INTEGER)
BEGIN
DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200); SET v_dynSQL = 'UPDATE ? SET ?=? WHERE ?=?'; PREPARE
v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL; EXECUTE v_stmt1 USING tab_name, col_name1, new_count, col_name2,
item_code; END
D. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count5 (INnew_count INTEGER, IN item_code INTEGER) BEGIN
DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200); DECLARE v_col_name VARCHAR(128); SET v_col_name =
'item_number'; SET v_dynSQL = 'UPDATE stock SET quantity_on_hand=? WHERE ?=?'; PREPARE
v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL; EXECUTE v_stmt1 USING new_count, v_col_name, item_code; END
Answer: A

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
A user-defined function was created using the statement shown in the exhibit. Which additional option can
be added to the CREATE FUNCTION statement to tell the optimizer that the function does not always
return the same results for a given argument value?
A. NO EXTERNAL ACTION
B. NOT FENCED
C. NOT DETERMINISTIC
D. STATIC DISPATCH
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which SQL procedure declaration is coded correctly?
A. CREATE PROCEDUREmyproc(IN salary DOUBLE, OUT commission DOUBLE) BEGIN DECLARE
EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION SET commission = 0; DECLARE my_cur CURSOR FOR
SELECT * FROM employee; DECLARE a DOUBLE; SET a = .06 * salary; SET commission = a; END
B. CREATE PROCEDUREmyproc(IN salary DOUBLE, OUT commission DOUBLE) BEGIN DECLARE
EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION SET commission = 0; DECLARE a DOUBLE; DECLARE my_cur
CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM employee; SET a = .06 * salary; SET commission = a; END
C. CREATE PROCEDUREmyproc(IN salary DOUBLE, OUT commission DOUBLE) BEGIN DECLARE a
DOUBLE; DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION SET commission = 0; DECLARE my_cur
CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM employee; SET a = .06 * salary; SET commission = a; END
D. CREATE PROCEDUREmyproc(IN salary DOUBLE, OUT commission DOUBLE) BEGIN DECLARE a
DOUBLE; DECLARE my_cur CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM employee; DECLARE EXIT HANDLER
FOR SQLEXCEPTION
SET commission = 0; SET a = .06 * salary; SET commission = a; END
Answer: D

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NO.8 A developer needs to create a user-defined function that will return a list of employees who work in a
particular department. Which statement will successfully create a function that meets this objective?
A. CREATE FUNCTIONdept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE LANGUAGE SQL
READS SQL DATA RETURN SELECT empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM
employee WHERE employee.workdept = dept_employees.deptno
B. CREATE FUNCTIONdept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE DYNAMIC RESULT
SETS 1 LANGUAGE SQL READS SQL DATA DECLARE emp_info CURSOR WITH RETURN FOR
SELECT empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM employee WHERE
employee.workdept = dept_employees.deptno OPEN emp_info; RETURN
C. CREATE FUNCTIONdept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE (empno CHAR(6),
l_nameVARCHAR(15), f_nameVARCHAR(12)) LANGUAGE SQL READS SQL DATA RETURN SELECT
empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM employee WHERE employee.workdept =
dept_employees.deptno
D. CREATE FUNCTIONdept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE (empno CHAR(6),
l_nameVARCHAR(15), f_nameVARCHAR(12)) DYNAMIC RESULT SETS 1 LANGUAGE SQL READS
SQL DATA DECLARE emp_info CURSOR WITH RETURN FOR
SELECT empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM employee WHERE
employee.workdept = dept_employees.deptno OPEN emp_info; RETURN
Answer: C

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