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Exam Code: 132-S-100
Exam Name: Avaya Sales Certification Specialist
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
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Last Update: 2014-04-30

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Exam Code: 6104
Exam Name: Avaya Wireless LAN Implementation Exam
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Exam Code: 6401.1
Exam Name: Avaya IP Office Implementation Exam
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NO.1 .A key capability of Avaya's IP Telephony solutions is to extend customer announcements,
voicemail greetings, and other applications from the core to the branches, enabling _____.
A. A higher TCO
B. Branch office managers to maintain and administer their own communications systems
C. Consistent user experiences
D. Each user to have a different, customized experience
Answer: C

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NO.2 .Partners selling to Global Accounts at the Avaya Direct Account Team's invitation must sell which
of the following?
A. Avaya Services only
B. Avaya products only
C. Avaya content for both products and services where Avaya has an applicable offer
D. Any products or services they choose
Answer: C

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NO.3 .Avaya will have direct resources assigned for primary coverage for which two of the following
account types? (Choose two.)
A. Non Global / US Named
B. US Named
C. Global
D. All account types
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 .Which is NOT a common business problem addressable by Avaya's IPT solutions?
A. Inability to get the appropriate parties together to make decision
B. Inability to communicate during a major business interruption
C. Multiple disparate systemsthat are expensive to maintain
D. Disconnected branch offices
Answer: A

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NO.5 .Which are the three basic functions of the Communication Manager Software?
A. PBX functionality,Contact Center functionality, Mobility Server
B. PBX functionality, Mobility Server, IPSoftphone
C. Mobility Server,Contact Center functionality, DoS Protection Server
D. Contact Center functionality, PBX functionality, SIP Enablement
Answer: A

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NO.6 .SIP is a key enabler of intelligent communications because it allows for monitoring of _____.
A. Presence
B. Metrics
C. Call volume
D. Process
Answer: A

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NO.7 .In the Contact Center portfolio, how does Avaya solve this customer problem: Inability to make
good decisions on behalf of customers and to provide personalized customer service?
A. Access to actionable customer data through a single database and reporting platform
B. Ability to extend applications outward through the enterprise
C. Access convenient communications capabilities to find and reach people more effectively
D. Best practice use of technology
Answer: A

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NO.8 .Who determines the maintenance renewal strategy when a Partner has previously sold a
maintenance agreement to a non Global / US Named Account? (Choose two.)
A. The Avaya Direct team owns the maintenance renewal strategy.
B. The Avaya Telesales team owns the maintenance renewal strategy.
C. The end-user customer.
D. The Partner owns the maintenance renewal strategy, which may include a Channel Service
Agreement, Partner Support Service / Joint Service Delivery, or Wholesale Maintenance.
Answer: C,D

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Exam Name: RSA SecurID Certified Administrator 8.0 Exam
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Exam Name: CSE RSA Data Loss Prevention 6.0
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NO.1 RSA DLP Endpoint Enforce uses the same infrastructure as RSA DLP Endpoint Discovery.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 DLP network can decompress files that are compressed and analyze the contents of compressed files.
What is the maximum number of times, a file can be compressed before the e system cannot handle the
decompression/analysis of an attachment or transmission.
A. 20 levels of compression
B. 50 levels of compression
C. 75 levels of compression
D. 100 level of compression
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following components is required to monitor/block HTTPS traffic in DLP Network?
A. Span Port
B. Bluecoat Proxy
C. Network Sensor
D. Network Controller
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a component of the RSA DLP Suite?
A. Network
B. Endpoint
C. Filesystem
D. Datacenter
Answer: C

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NO.5 A Linux based version of the DLP Enterprise Coordinator is installed on the RSA DLP Network
controller.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.6 Any ICAP client Proxy server can communicate with the ICAPserver by default. Which configuration file
is used to limit which Client proxy can connect to the ICAPserver appliance?
A. ICAP.cnf
B. ICAP.conf
C. proxy.conf
D. c-ICAP.conf
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which appliance can be set in scan and tag mode
A. Network Sensor
B. Network Controller
C. Network Interceptor
D. Network ICAPserver
Answer: C

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NO.8 Incidents that are created as the result of RSA DLP agent scan on an end user's computer will be
categorized as Datacenter Incidents.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT a good practice for audit logs?
A. Audit Logs should be accessible to all users at all times
B. Audit Logs should be accessible to security personnel only
C. Audit Logs should contain unsuccessful login attempts
D. Audit Logs should not contain any passwords
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following c1assify under techno crime?
A. Stolen customer account details
B. Virus attack
C. Server failure
D. Hurricane
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is true about authentication?
A. Authentication means that information can be accessed when needed by authorized
personnel
B. Authentication means that passwords can be accessed when needed by authorized
personnel
C. Authentication means the positive verification of the user/device ma system
D. Authentication means that only authorized persons modify information
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which out of the following is/are preventive measures against password sniffing?
A. Passwords must not be sent through email in plain text
B. Passwords must not be stored in plain text on any electronic media
C. Passwords may be electronically stored if encrypted
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your company's off site backup facility is intended to operate an information
processing facility, having no computer or
communications equipment, but having flooring, electrical wiring, air conditioning,
etc. This is better known as a____
A. Hot site
B. Duplicate processing facility
C. Cold site
D. Warm site
Answer: C

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NO.6 The Musical Instrument Digital Interface (MIDI) standard is used for digital music.
Which OSI layer does this standard belong to?
A. Session
B. Data Link
C. Application
D. Presentation
Answer: D

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NO.7 Can a user use Personal Certificates to control server access?
A. SSL can also be used to verify the users' identity to the server
B. NO, there is no such method
C. It can be used through web security
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.8 The _____ application provides IP address-to-hostname or vice-versa lookup:
A. FTP
B. Telnet
C. DNS
D. ICMP
Answer: C

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Exam Code: SCP-500
Exam Name: SolarWinds Certified Professional Exam
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NO.1 Which management protocol should you use to analyze network traffic in and out of a router
interface?
A.WMI
B.Syslog
C.IP service level agreement (SLA)
D.sFlow
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which network protocols are used by SolarWinds products during network discoveries?
A.ICMP and SMTP
B.DHCP and TFTP
C.PPTP and IMAP
D.ICMP and SNMP
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which two performance metrics can be affected by proper QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A.jitter
B.shaping
C.marking
D.queuing
E.latency
Answer:AE

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NO.4 When using a network management system (NMS) to monitor network interfaces on a router, you
notice that statistics are wrong after an interface card is physically removed from the device.
What has most likely caused this problem?
A.interface re-indexing
B.device configuration
C.counter rollovers
D.access lists
Answer:A

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NO.5 Orion NPM is using SNMP to poll a routerand track interface traffic rates. The data are collected every
5 minutes, and the most recent values collected for a specific interfaceare 1,000,000 and 2,000,000
octets.
What is the approximate average rate of traffic for this interface?
A.1 Kbps
B.3 Kbps
C.16 Kbps
D.26 Kbps
Answer:D

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NO.6 A network engineer is enabling SNMP on their network devices and needs to ensureit will use message
integrity.
Which version of SNMP should they use?
A.SNMPv1
B.SNMPv2c
C.SNMPv3
D.SNMPv4
Answer:C

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NO.7 A network engineer notices the Syslog server's database is growingsignificantly in sizedue to thelarge
number of devices sending Syslog messages.
What should the engineer do to control database growth?
A.configure the Syslog server to discard unwanted messages
B.configure the devices and the Syslog server to use TCP-based Syslog
C.configure the devices and the Syslog server to use SNMPv3
D.configure the Syslog server to capture SNMP traps instead of Syslog
Answer:A

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NO.8 The data center teamrequires that they be alerted if any of the servers in a remote site go
down.However, they do NOT want to receive alerts when the remote site connection goes down.
Which two configuration steps should you take within your network management system (NMS) to meet
these requirements? (Choose two.)
A.set up alerts on server status
B.set up alerts on the remote connection status
C.set each of the servers as dependencies for each other
D.set up the remote connection as a dependency for each of the servers
E.set up alerts on the remote router status
Answer:AD

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NO.1 Which of the following are true regarding the highest priority queue on Foundry
chassis devices?
A. qosp0 ?This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 0 and 1 and Foundry
priority levels 0 and 1.
B. qosp0 ?This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 6 and 7 and Foundry
priority levels 6 and 7.
C. qosp3 ?This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 0 and 1 and Foundry
priority levels 0 and 1.
D. qosp3 ?This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 6 and 7 and Foundry
priority levels 6 and 7.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Foundry route health injection feature supports health checks for which of the
following?
A. All TCP traffic
B. All TCP and UDP traffic
C. HTTP only
D. HTTP, POP3, and SNMP
Answer: C

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NO.3 What transport layer protocol provides a connection oriented service?
A. UDP
B. STP
C. TCP
D. ARP
Answer: C

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NO.4 What feature allows a switch to detect and switch web traffic to a local cache server
within the network?
A. http header hashing
B. SSL session ID switching
C. transparent cache switching
D. cache route optimization
Answer: C

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NO.5 Exhibit:
The diagram shows an OSPF network with no designated router (DR) and no
backup designated router (BDR). Which of the following statements identifiy which
routers will be selected DR and BDR?
A. Router C is DR, Router B is BDR
B. Router B is DR, Router A is BDR
C. Router B is BDR, Router A is DR
D. Router A is DR, Router C is BDR
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which routing protocol is used on the Internet to route traffic between Autonomous
Systems and to maintain loop-free routing?
A. OSPF
B. IBGP
C. BGP4
D. RIP
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which Foundry CLI command is used to provide privileged user mode?
A. access
B. enable
C. super-user
D. config t
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which Foundry CLI command should be used to add an unencrypted community
string?
A. snmp-server community private rw
B. snmp-server community 0 private rw
C. snmp-server community 1 private rw
D. snmp-server community clr private rw
Answer: B

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Exam Code: FM0-307
Exam Name: Developer Essentials for FileMaker 12 Exam
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Exam Code: FM0-301
Exam Name: Filemaker7 Developer essentials exam
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Exam Code: FM0-304
Exam Name: Developer Essentials for FileMaker 10
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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
You want to build a FileMaker Pro 7 database that models a business organizational chart. One person
may manage no one or many people. One person may be managed by at most one other person.
You want to build the system in such a way that a single layout showing information about a person can
display both the name of the current person's manager (if any) and the names of all people managed by
the current person.
What is the minimum number of tables you must define in the Tables tab of the Define Database dialog to
construct the layout?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: A

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NO.2 Consider a FileMaker Pro 7 database with the following tables and fields:
Using only Cartesian (cross or x ) relationships between occurrences of these tables, sorting if necessary,
which two actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. determine the mode of the order amount
B. determine the date of the most recent order
C. display all records from the Customer table in a portal
D. create a value list that shows all orders for a chosen customer
E. create a portal to show one record for each product that has ever been ordered
Answer: BC

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NO.3 Which statement is true in FileMaker Pro 7?
A. The Save record changes automatically layout option does not apply to users with [Full Access]
privileges.
B. On a layout by layout basis, you can specify whether record changes made in Browse mode will be
saved automatically.
C. On a layout by layout basis, you can specify whether changes made to the layout when exiting Layout
mode will be saved automatically.
D. If the Save record changes automatically option has been turned off for a layout, then users will be
prompted to save their changes only when exiting the layout.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which three statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 7? (Choose three.)
A. Indexing improves the speed at which finds are performed.
B. Value lists require at least one of any field they reference to be indexed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A value index, used in establishing relationships, stores up to 60 primary characters or digits per
return-delimited line.
E. Using Unicode or ASCII as the default language by which a field is indexed causes sorts on that field to
be case sensitive.
Answer: ABE

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NO.5 A database has two tables, Planet and Moon. Moons are related to a single planet and their
relationship is set to delete related records in the Moon table when a Planet record is deleted. Which
two things happen when the Planet table is deleted from the Tables tab of the Define Database dialog?
(Choose two.)
A. All data in the Planet table are deleted.
B. All records in the Moon table are deleted.
C. All records in the Moon table remain unaffected.
D. All records in the Moon table are deleted if the option to "Also remove occurrences of these tables in
the graph" was selected when deleting the Planet table.
E. All table occurrences of both Planet and Moon tables are removed if the option to "Also remove
occurrences of these tables in the graph" was selected when deleting the Planet table.
Answer: AC

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NO.6 If a field in FileMaker Pro 7 has been set to validate Always, which three actions will trigger validation
on that field? (Choose three.)
A. importing data into that field
B. exporting data from that field
C. editing data in the field using Instant Web Publishing
D. clicking into the field, then immediately exiting the field
E. attempting to change the value of the field using a Set Field[ ] script step
Answer: ACE

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
You have a FileMaker Pro 7 layout based on the table occurrence of Classes. You have a portal showing
records from the table occurrence Students.
What happens if you place the field Students::Name into the portal?
A. The field displays <Field Missing> .
B. The field displays an enrolled student's name in each row of the portal.
C. The field displays the first matching student's name in every portal row.
D. The field displays an enrolled student's name in each row of the portal only if the student name is
calculated in the Enrollment table.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 7?
A. 125
B. 250
C. 350
D. 500
E. The number is limited only by server hardware.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E22-186
Exam Name: EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint Administration Exam
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Exam Code: E20-814
Exam Name: Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators
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Exam Code: E22-275
Exam Name: recoverpoint backup and recovery specialist exam
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NO.1 How can an administrator minimize the number of permission updates in a SharePoint archive?
A. add and remove permissions for individual SharePoint users
B. add and remove groups
C. add and remove members to existing groups
D. add and remove permissions for individual Active Directory users
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which layer in the EMC SourceOne architecture handles SharePoint archiving activities?
A. Application
B. Service
C. Provider
D. Data
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator needs to assign permissions for archiving SharePoint sites with EMC SourceOne for
Microsoft SharePoint. What should the administrator use to assign those permissions?
A. SourceOne Admin group
B. SourceOne Security group
C. SharePoint groups
D. SharePoint users
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which web browser property should all end users ensure is enabled to use SharePoint Archive
Search?
A. JavaScript
B. ActiveX plug-in
C. Applets
D. Allow pop-ups
Answer: A

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NO.5 A company's SharePoint farm content databases continue to grow past the Microsoft recommended
size. What can an administrator do to alleviate this problem?
A. run the EMC SourceOne SharePoint Shortcut activity to replace SharePoint content with shortcut files
B. run the EMC SourceOne SharePoint Archive activity and copy older content to an Archive folder
C. install, configure, and enable the EMC SourceOne EBS Provider for the SharePoint farm
D. ensure automatic disposition is configured on the SourceOne Archive folder
Answer: C

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NO.6 The External BLOB Storage Garbage Collection routine recovers storage from which location?
A. Message Center
B. Large Content subdirectory
C. Worker Temp directory
D. Index Temp directory
Answer: B

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NO.7 How long will a user's last query be remembered within SharePoint when the Fire-And-Forget search
feature is used?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 14 days
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is a benefit of EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint?
A. improves SharePoint performance and scalability by short-cutting content on the SharePoint SQL
servers
B. leverages the SharePoint infrastructure for retention and policy management
C. provides a single, unified search mechanism across archive and SharePoint content
D. improves management of SharePoint libraries and lists and the various content types within them
Answer: D

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Exam Code: E20-005
Exam Name: Backup Recovery Systems and Architecture Exam
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Exam Code: E20-390
Exam Name: VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers
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Exam Code: E20-918
Exam Name: IT-as-a-Service Expert Exam for Cloud Architects
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NO.1 A full backup of a file system is performed once a week on Saturday and cumulative backups are
performed on all other days. Backups start at 20:00 with a two-hour window. Data on the file system
changes every day.
How many backups are required to perform a full system restore as of Friday morning?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 1
D. 7
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which type of backup should be used to create a backup copy offline without disrupting I/O operations
on a production volume?
A. Cumulative backup
B. Incremental backup
C. Full backup
D. Synthetic full backup
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the interval of time between the creation and expiration of the backup called?
A. Retention period
B. Recovery point objective (RPO)
C. Recovery time objective (RTO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement defines retention period?
A. Amount of time available for restoring a particular version of a backup dataset
B. Amount of time available for overwriting a volume containing backups
C. Period of time in which a backup must be restored
D. Amount of time allocated for full system recovery
Answer: A

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NO.5 A business has a recovery point objective (RPO) of nine hours. What does this RPO mean in the event
of a disaster?
A. No more than nine hours of production data can be lost
B. Restore from backup must occur within nine hours
C. Production must be resumed within nine hours
D. A backup copy of the production data must be obtained within nine hours
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the role of the storage node in a client/server backup architecture?
A. Writes data to a backup device
B. Gathers data to be backed up
C. Manages the backup operation
D. Writes metadata to the backup catalog
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the primary reason for having disaster recovery backups?
A. To restore data from an alternate site due to data loss at a primary site
B. To restore data when data loss or logical corruptions occur during routine processing
C. To restore data that was archived for regulatory compliance
D. To restore data when data loss occurs due to minor hardware component failures
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which type of backup only copies the files that have changed since the last full backup.?
A. Cumulative
B. Full
C. Incremental
D. Synthetic full
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E22-192
Exam Name: Captiva Installation, Configuration, and Management Exam
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Exam Code: E20-018
Exam Name: Virtualized Data Center and Cloud Infrastructure Design Specialist
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Exam Code: E20-880
Exam Name: VNX Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects
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NO.1 A customer has designed an environment using block based LUNs presented to individual hosts. They
have configured a pool to start using both thick and thin LUNs. One of the standalone servers is an
archive server running on Windows. They want to maximize capacity on the standalone server since the
data is no longer accessed. They have no more drives to increase LUN capacity.
How can the customer increase available capacity to the archive server?
A. Compress the data on the block based LUN
B. Add capacity to the existing LUN
C. Delete old files
D. Back up the files, reconfigure the LUN, and restore the data
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer is checking a NAR file in Unisphere Analyzer. They see that a RAID Group with only a single
LUN is shown with consistently large Disk - Average Seek Distances.
What could this indicate?
A. Randomness of the I/O
B. Write utilization
C. LUN misalignment
D. Applicationburstiness
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your customer has a new VNX solution configured with Flash, SAS, and NL-SAS drives. The customer
requires their OLTP, VDI, Software Development, and Regulatory Compliance workloads to be distributed
between the different drive types. Due to limited drive quantities only one workload type can be configured
using Flash drives.
According to best practices which configuration best assigns the workloads.?
A. VDI on Flash drives; OLTP on SAS; Software Development on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on
NL-SAS
B. OLTP on Flash drives; VDI on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on SAS; Software Development on
NL-SAS
C. OLTP on Flash drives; VDI on SAS; Software Development on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on
NL-SAS
D. VDI on Flash drives; OLTP on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on SAS; Software Development on
NL-SAS
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer would like to use five Ethernet ports on a VNX to increase the port and switch availability.
Two non-stackable Ethernet switches are available for the VNX and both support Full Duplex
communications.
How should the customer configure the VNX for the network?
A. Fail Safe Networking and Link Aggregation
B. Link Aggregation only
C. EtherChannel and Fail Safe Networking
D. EtherChannel only
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are working with a customer to design a VNX for Block solution for their SQL database. They
currently have a CX4-480. In the past they have co-located their database and log files. In the new VNX
design, the database will be placed in a FAST VP enabled pool. The transaction logs will be placed on a
traditional RAID Group. Your customer needs help determining the number of spindles they need to
satisfy the needs of their transaction logs.
You know the following: -Transactionperiod:8 hours (business day) -Throughput during transaction
period:240 GB
How many RAID 1/0 15K spindles will the transaction log volume require?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 10
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer is in the design phase of their SQL server implementation. They request your guidance
concerning the number of disk drives needed to properly configure the database for performance. The
current utilization of the database is shown below:S
-85% reads and 15% writes
-10K SAS disks
-RAID 1/0
-1150 IOPS
What is the minimum number of disk spindles required to service the random I/O requests during usage of
the SQL Server database?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Answer: B

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NO.7 A pair of VNX storage arrays is replicating between two data centers over an iSCSI connection. The
SQL Admin has noticed that a small OLTP database with a write size of 4k periodically experiences
increased disk response times. The Storage Admin reports that during the same period, replication
sessions are taking longer to complete. The Network Admin reports degraded performance between the
sites during the same period.
Why is the SQL application seeing increased disk response times from the local array?
A. Increased latency causes the MirrorView/A update cycles to take longer, increasing COFW activity.
B. The 64 KB chunk size for MirrorView/A does not match the small transaction size of the database,
increasing the bandwidth required between the arrays.
C. The MirrorView/A update cycle time is too short. It should be increased to improve write folding.
D. The MirrorView/A buffer size should be adjusted to match the smaller write I/O size.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer is in the design phase of their SQL server implementation. They request your guidance
concerning the number of disk drives needed to properly configure the database for performance. The
current utilization of the database is shown below:
-80% reads and 20% writes
-10K SAS disks
-RAID 5
-1150 IOPS
What is the minimum number of disk spindles required to service the random I/O requests during usage of
the SQL Server database?
A. 12
B. 14
C. 18
D. 20
Answer: B

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NO.1 Jimmy, an attacker, knows that he can take advantage of poorly designed input validation routines to
create or alter SQL commands to gain access to private data or execute commands in the database.
What technique does Jimmy use to compromise a database.?
A. Jimmy can submit user input that executes an operating system command to compromise a target
system
B. Jimmy can gain control of system to flood the target system with requests, preventing legitimate users
from gaining access
C. Jimmy can utilize an incorrect configuration that leads to access with higher-than expected privilege of
the database
D. Jimmy can utilize this particular database threat that is an SQL injection technique to penetrate a target
system
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following type of scanning utilizes automated process of proactively identifying
vulnerabilities of the computing systems present on a network?
A. Port Scanning
B. Single Scanning
C. External Scanning
D. Vulnerability Scanning
Answer: D

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NO.3 This type of Port Scanning technique splits TCP header into several packets so that the packet filters
are not able to detect what the packets intends to do.
A. UDP Scanning
B. IP Fragment Scanning
C. Inverse TCP flag scanning
D. ACK flag scanning
Answer: B

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NO.4 What type of session hijacking attack is shown in the exhibit?
A. Cross-site scripting Attack
B. SQL Injection Attack
C. Token sniffing Attack
D. Session Fixation Attack
Answer: D

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NO.5 What type of attack is shown in the following diagram?
A. Man-in-the-Middle (MiTM) Attack
B. Session Hijacking Attack
C. SSL Spoofing Attack
D. Identity Stealing Attack
Answer: A

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NO.6 Anonymizer sites access the Internet on your behalf, protecting your personal information from
disclosure. An anonymizer protects all of your computer's identifying information while it surfs for you,
enabling you to remain at least one step removed from the sites you visit.
You can visit Web sites without allowing anyone to gather information on sites visited by you. Services
that provide anonymity disable pop-up windows and cookies, and conceal visitor's IP address.
These services typically use a proxy server to process each HTTP request. When the user requests a
Web page by clicking a hyperlink or typing a URL into their browser, the service retrieves and displays the
information using its own server. The remote server (where the requested Web page resides) receives
information on the anonymous Web surfing service in place of your information.
In which situations would you want to use anonymizer? (Select 3 answers)
A. Increase your Web browsing bandwidth speed by using Anonymizer
B. To protect your privacy and Identity on the Internet
C. To bypass blocking applications that would prevent access to Web sites or parts of sites that you want
to visit.
D. Post negative entries in blogs without revealing your IP identity
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 You run nmap port Scan on 10.0.0.5 and attempt to gain banner/server information from services
running on ports 21, 110 and 123.
Here is the output of your scan results:
Which of the following nmap command did you run?
A. nmap -A -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
B. nmap -F -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
C. nmap -O -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
D. nmap -T -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following countermeasure can specifically protect against both the MAC Flood and MAC
Spoofing attacks?
A. Configure Port Security on the switch
B. Configure Port Recon on the switch
C. Configure Switch Mapping
D. Configure Multiple Recognition on the switch
Answer: A

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Exam Code: DC0-260
Exam Name: Dell Certified Storage Networking Professional
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Exam Code: DC0-261
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NO.1 Which three statements are correct about clones? (Choose three.)
A. Clones can be copied using SAN Copy to a remote storage array.
B. Clones typically consume about 20% of the size of the source LUN.
C. Fractured clones can later be synchronized with the source LUN to update the contents.
D. Clones can be fractured from the source LUN, then mounted to a secondary host and accessed just
like another LUN.
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 Which two are examples of how SnapView can be used in conjunction with MirrorView? (Choose two.)
A. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the remote mirror for use at the remote site.
B. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the remote mirror and then back up the snapshot to tape.
C. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the primary mirror and then mirror the snapshot to the
remote site.
D. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the remote mirror and then clone the snapshot for use at
the primary site.
Answer: AB

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NO.3 You have a source LUN on a CX500 for which you maintain snapshots for tape backup. You need to
create a new snapshot for this source LUN but are unable to do so. You can create snapshots of other
source LUNs on the array. What is the most likely problem?
A. You have reached the maximum limit of 50 Cache LUNs.
B. You have reached the maximum limit of 8 snapshots per source LUN.
C. You have reached the maximum limit of 150 snapshots per storage system.
D. You have reached the maximum limit of 300 snapshots per storage system.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which three statements are correct about SAN Copy? (Choose three.)
A. SAN Copy can be installed on any model CX array.
B. SAN Copy is a storage array-based Data Mover application.
C. SAN Copy transfers data over a Fibre Channel SAN, as opposed to an IP LAN.
D. SAN Copy sessions can be managed either by Navisphere Manager or by CLI.
Answer: BCD

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NO.5 You have installed SAN Copy. Which statement is true?
A. The storage array must be rebooted.
B. SAN Copy cannot be upgraded, except by a complete re-install.
C. Any LUN within the SAN is automatically made available to be copied.
D. The admhost utility must be installed on each storage array that Navisphere Manager resides on.
E. SAN Copy sessions can be managed through the Navisphere Manager Enterprise Storage window.
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which statement best describes bi-directional mirroring as implemented by MirrorView ?
A. By utilizing two storage systems, a single storage system can be configured as the primary for one
mirror and a secondary for another mirror.
B. By utilizing two storage systems and one tape drive, the two storage systems are configured as a
primary and the secondary is backed up to tape.
C. By utilizing two storage systems, a single storage system is configured as the primary and the other
storage system is configured as the secondary.
D. By utilizing three storage systems, the two storage systems are configured as a primary and the third
storage system is configured as a secondary that is used to store the primary images.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What steps should you perform to create a copy of a source LUN in a second storage array, while
minimizing unavailability of the source LUN?
A. use SAN Copy to copy the source LUN, then take a snapshot on the second storage array
B. take a snapshot of the source LUN, then use SAN Copy to copy the snapshot to the second storage
array
C. take a snapshot of the source LUN, then use SAN Copy to copy the source LUN to the second storage
array
D. take a snapshot of the source LUN, run MirrorView to mirror the snapshot to the second array, then
use SAN Copy to synchronize the mirror with the source LUN
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two tasks can Navisphere Analyzer perform? (Choose two.)
A. comparing archived and real-time performance data
B. tracking performance trends for Dell / EMC switches
C. tracking performance trends for Dell / EMC storage arrays
D. tracking performance trends for hosts connected to Dell / EMC Storage Area Networks (SANs)
Answer: AC

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NO.1 You have been asked to recommend an appropriate network bandwidth for a medium to large business.
This business will use it for their IP phones, as well as their data connection. Which of the following would
you recommend?
A.DS0
B.DS1
C.ISDN BRI
D.ISDN PRI
Answer: D

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NO.2 Consider the following image of a Media Access Control (MAC) address:QV12116bY$X%&,*+
Which of the following describes the portion designated by letter A?
A.The 48 bit ID code, known as the Mac-48.
B.The 48 bit ID code, known as the EUI-48.
C.The 24 bit vendor code, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI)
D.The 64 bit interface serial number, known as the known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI).
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which protocol does is generally used to establish calls in SIP implementations?
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.RTP
D.H.225
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have decided to use the following range of IP addresses:
172.16.0.0/24
Which of the following will allow you to avoid deploying NAT traversal workarounds?
A.Deploy a STUN server.
B.Deploy a Session Border Controller (SBC).
C.Use registered IP addresses for all devices.
D.Use the default subnet mask for your IP address range.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is a concern when implementing IPsec for SIP-based voice calls behind a
firewall that implements Network Address Translation (NAT)?
A.IPsec doesn't natively support SIP.
B.Encryption causes increased overhead.
C.You must implement tunnel mode using the AH security protocol.
D.You must implement transport mode using the AH security protocol.
Answer: B

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NO.6 The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) the ASCII text standard to format its messages. The H.323
protocol uses ASN.1 binary code. Which layer of the OSI/RM is responsible for translating, processing
and reading ASN.1 and ASCII messages?
A.Network
B.Session
C.Physical
D.Presentation
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are helping design an SIP implementation for an existing network. Which of the following is the
most important element to verify?
A.Whether or not the company uses fire-grade cabling.
B.Whether or not the company has implemented QoS.
C.Whether or not the company Web server supports SSL.
D.Whether or not the company layer 2 switches have fault tolerance in place.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following describes how the host portion of IPv4 and IPv6 addresses are created?
A.All IPv4 and Ipv6 host addresses are determined by ICANN.
B.All IPv4 and IPv6 host addresses are based on the host's MAC address.
C.The host portion of an IPv4 address is determined by ICANN. The host portion of an IPv6 address is
determined according to the multicast address.
D.The host portion of an IPv4 address is determined arbitrarily according to the value of the subnet mask.
The host portion of an IPv6 address is determined from the host's MAC address.
Answer: D

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