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Exam Code: JN0-101
Exam Name: JNCIA-JUNOS EXAM OBJECTIVES
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Exam Code: JN0-562
Exam Name: Certified Internet Associate (JNCIA-SSL) 562 Exam
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Exam Code: JN0-522
Exam Name: FXV,Associate (JNCIA-FWV)
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NO.1 You want to configure Network Connect to allow users to connect through a tunnel, connect to hosts on
the same subnet as their local adapter, and shut down any attempt to extend the network boundaries.
How do you proceed?
A. Enable split tunneling.
B. Disable split tunneling.
C. Enable split tunneling with route change monitor.
D. Allow access to local subnet with route change monitor.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are using RADIUS as your authorization server. Other than username, which two attributes are
available for creating role mapping rules? (Choose two.)
A. Certificate
B. User Attribute
C. RSA Attributes
D. Group Membership
Answer: AB

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NO.3 Which User Role session option provides you with the capability to cache basic authentication
information so users are not challenged repeatedly for the same credentials?
A. roaming session
B. persistent session
C. persistent password caching
D. browser request follow-through
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which role-based session option would an administrator configure to allow a user to connect from
different source IP addresses within the same user session?
A. roaming session
B. persistent session
C. persistent password caching
D. browser request follow-through
Answer: A

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NO.5 Where is the IVE typically deployed in the network?
A. behind the Internet firewall
B. internally with all clients directly cabled to the IVE
C. both interfaces on the outside of the Internet firewall
D. parallel to the Internet firewall with one interface on the outside and one on the inside
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two statements about SSL VPNs are true? (Choose two.)
A. SSL VPNs provide better security than IPSEC.
B. SSL VPNs provide a dedicated, point to point connection.
C. SSL VPNs provide high performance for individual connections.
D. SSL VPNs use well-known technologies for secure individual connections.
Answer: CD

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NO.7 Resource Profiles support creating policies for which two technologies? (Choose two.)
A. secure meeting
B. network connect
C. terminal services
D. Web applications
Answer: CD

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NO.8 Which three authentication servers are included with a baseline license? (Choose three.)
A. NIS
B. ACE
C. SAML
D. LDAP
E. SiteMinder
Answer: ABD

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JN0-560 Real Exams, JN0-360 Practice Test

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Exam Code: JN0-560
Exam Name: Certified Internet Associate.....
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Exam Code: JN0-360
Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-SP)
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NO.1 Which three logs are default log files on the IVE system? (Choose three)
A. Event log
B. Traffic log
C. System log
D. User Access log
E. Admin Access log
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 On an IVE in the default configuration, which URL is valid for administrator
access?
A. http://192.168.1.1
B. https://192.168.1.1
C. http://192.168.1.1/admin
D. https://192.168.1.1/admin
E. https://192.168.1.1/console
Answer: D

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NO.3 A user is not being authenticated properly and has called you for help.
Which two tools help you determine the cause? (Choose two)
A. policy trace
B. policy simulation
C. User Access logs
D. Admin Access logs
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which three troubleshooting tools are available from the serial console? (Choose
three)
A. ping
B. tcpdump
C. trace route
D. view arp cache
E. add routing table entries
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 You need to provide support for at least 100 Web connections but want to plan for
a total of 500 simultaneous as part of the growth plan.
Which is the least expensive model of the Secure Access product that meets this
requirement?
A. RA500
B. SA1000
C. SA3000
D. SA5000
E. SM3000
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two can you change via the sign-in page menu option? (Choose two)
A. authorization server
B. authentication realms
C. custom HML file for help
D. text for login screen display
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 What is a shortcoming of Core Access?
A. limited auditing
B. no kiosk access
C. limited resource access
D. requires installation privileges
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two features are available on an unlicensed IVE? (choose two)
A. SAM
B. File access via a Web interface
C. Ten user access
D. Web access
E. Network Connect
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: JN0-380
Exam Name: Wireless LAN, Specialist (JNCIS-WLAN)
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NO.1 What is the maximum allowed configurable SSIDs per radio?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the hardware requirement for a RingMaster client?
A. Intel/AMD x86-compatible dual core processor, 2.0Ghz, 2GB RAM, 512 MB HD space
B. Intel/AMD x86-compatible single core processor, 2.0Ghz, 2GB RAM, 512 MB HD space
C. Intel/AMD x86-compatible single core processor, 2.0Ghz, 1GB RAM, 1024 MB HD space
D. Intel/AMD x86-compatible dual core processor, 1.0Ghz, 1GB RAM, 512 MB HD space
Answer: A

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6. During the installation of RingMaster, you receive the installation error: "HTTPS Server port is
already in use. Please select another port."
What should you do to resolve this issue?
A. Change the HTTPS Server port number to 443.
B. Change the HTTPS Server port number so that it does not conflict with other applications.
C. Restart the installation process so that RingMaster can resolve the issue.
D. Change the SNMP Trap Receiver port to 162.
Answer: B

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7. You are asked to troubleshoot a communication problem between a WLC and a RADIUS server.
You verified that the RADIUS server is reachable from the WLC.
Which WLC CLI command would be used for troubleshooting RADIUS connectivity?
A. rfping
B. show authentication
C. ping
D. radping
Answer: D

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8. In an auditorium, you have 200 wireless clients connecting to the wireless network. You want
to
configure RF load balancing to distribute client sessions across multiple APs in the area.
Which two parameters are configurable to achieve this? (Choose two.)
A. setting strictness
B. configuring auto-tune
C. defining transmit rates
D. setting band preference
Answer: A,D

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9. You want to provide secure wireless services to one set of clients on your network and allow
open
access services to your guest clients. You need to configure service profiles for each type of
access to the network.
Which three methods are used to accomplish this? (Choose three.)
A. Configure one service per WLA.
B. Configure an encryption type.
C. Configure IP addresses.
D. Configure SSIDs.
E. Configure VLANs.
Answer: B,D,E

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10. Multiple users are complaining that their wireless connections are not working.
Which RingMaster screen would the administrator use for troubleshooting?
A. Alarms
B. Clients
C. Monitor
D. Verification
Answer: C

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NO.3 A user repeatedly calls in to the Help desk complaining about their wireless connection.
Which actions would test the user's wireless connectivity from RingMaster?
A. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
run the Location History option to find out if the client is near a functioning access point.
B. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
run the RF ping test to determine RSSI and retry counts to verify the RF environment being
reported by the AP to which the client is connected.
C. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
choose to terminate the client from the wireless network so they can reestablish a new session.
D. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
add the client to the Watched Client list to gather additional data on the clients signal strength and
data throughput.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have installed your AP in the proper location on your network. The AP needs to obtain
configuration information from a controller before it can support wireless clients.
What are three methods that an AP uses to do this? (Choose three.)
A. ICMP ping
B. Keepalive packets
C. DNS Lookup
D. L2 Broadcast
E. DHCP Option 43
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 Which Juniper Networks WLA model supports spectrum analysis?
A. WLA371
B. WLA422
C. WLA532
D. WLA632
Answer: C

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630-007 Exam Cram, CPSM1 Practice Test

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Exam Name: C.P.M. Module 3: Value Enhancement Strategies
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Exam Code: CPSM1
Exam Name: Foundation of Supply Management
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NO.1 According to Project Management Institute, which of the following is NOT the process group
of project?
Initiating
B. Organizing
C. Executing
D. Closing
Answer: B

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NO.2 Organizations less familiar with the discipline of project management usually begin by creating
task forces or committees within each role to tackle problem, known as:
A. Procurement Management
B. Functional structure
C. Procedural structure
D. Performance Management
Answer: B

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NO.3 The process of coordinating the organization, planning, scheduling, controlling, monitoring
and evaluating of activities so that the objectives of a project are met is known as:
A. Project Life cycle
B. Project Executive
C. Project Management
D. Project Organization
Answer: C

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NO.4 Contract statement of work is the output of which process group?
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Monitoring
D. Closing
Answer: A

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NO.5 A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service is called:
A. Project
B. Build
C. Enterprise
D. Development
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ISEB-SWT2
Exam Name: ISTQB-ISEB Certified Tester Foundation Level
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NO.1 A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A

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NO.2 During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process test process do you review the test basis?
A. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
B. Test implementation and execution
C. Test analysis and design
D. Test planning and control
Answer: C

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NO.3 A system requires 100% decision coverage at component testing for all modules. The following module
has been tested with a single test case.
The test case follows the path A, B, D, E, F, G. What level of decision coverage has been achieved?
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 90%
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following BEST describes a datadriven approach to the use of test execution tools?
A. Monitoring response times when the system contains a specified amount of data
B. Manipulation of databases and files to create test data
C. Using a generic script that reads test input data from a file
D. Recording test scripts and playing them back
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is a MAJOR task of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?
A. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders
B. Logging the outcome of test execution
C. Repeating test activities as a result of action taken for each discrepancy.
D. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which ADDITIONAL test level could be introduced into a standard Vmodel after system testing?
A. System Integration Testing
B. Acceptance Testing
C. Regression Testing
D. Component Integration Testing
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a. Adapt planning based on test results.
b. Create test specifications.
c. Plan tests.
d. Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the test leader. a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the test leader. c and d by the tester.
C. a and d by the test leader. b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the test leader. b by the tester.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which one of the following statements about approaches to test estimation is true?
A. A metricsbased approach is based on data gathered from previous projects. an expertbased approach
uses the knowledge of the owner of the tasks or experts
B. A metricsbased approach is based on creating a workbreakdown structure first. an expertbased
approach is based on input from estimation experts
C. A metricsbased approach is based on data gathered from previous projects. an expertbased approach
is based on a workbreakdown structure
D. A metricsbased approach is based on an analysis of the specification documents. an expertbased
approach is based on the opinion of the most experienced tester in the organisation
Answer: A

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Exam Code: BH0-002
Exam Name: ISEB FOUNDATION CERTIFICATE IN PROGRAMME/PROJECT SUPPORT
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Last Update: 2014-05-29

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Exam Code: ITILF2011
Exam Name: The ITIL Foundation - 2011
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Exam Code: FCGIT
Exam Name: Foundation Certificate in Green IT
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NO.1 Which of the following is part of an organisation's direct Carbon Footprint?
A. Financial services.
B. Office refurbishment.
C. Corporate entertaining.
D. Business travel.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the first step that an organisation should take to improve its Green IT credentials?
A. Rationalise its Data Centre.
B. Review competitors' green policies.
C. Establish its Green IT policy.
D. Replace its old PCs.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following actions make a PC more energy efficient?
A. Disabling stand-by settings.
B. Enabling active power management.
C. Enabling active screen savers.
D. Disabling CPU throttling features.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following describes Carbon Neutrality?
A. Eliminating CO2 emissions from product manufacture.
B. Maintaining CO2 emissions at a pre-defined agreed level.
C. Balancing CO2 emissions with an equivalent offset amount.
D. Matching CO2 emissions between defined business areas.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What action can you take to reduce the power consumption of your data centre?
A. Shut down servers out of business hours.
B. Replace small servers with larger ones.
C. Reallocate under-used servers to run active services.
D. Upgrade servers to always run the latest software.
Answer: C

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NO.6 How can you use a Continual Service Improvement Model as part of your green IT programme?
A. To ensure on-going monitoring and feedback through the programme lifecycle.
B. To ensure adequate technical support throughout the programme lifecycle.
C. To ensure agile application development to support the programme lifecycle.
D. To ensure senior management commitment throughout the programme lifecycle.
Answer: A

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NO.7 How much energy is used by monitor when displaying a PC screen saver?
A. The same as a standard office application.
B. Half the power of a standard office application.
C. One third the power of a standard office application.
D. Twice the power of a standard office application.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A Green IT policy should be aligned to which other organizational policy?
a) Performance Management Policy.
b) Sustainability Policy.
c) Equal Opportunities Policy.
d) Environmental Policy.
A. b and d only.
B. a, b and d only.
C. b and c only.
D. b, c and d only.
Answer: A

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M2050-238 Test Questions, C2180-175 Training online

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Exam Code: M2050-238
Exam Name: IBM Commerce Solutions Selling/Order Mgmt Sales Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: C2180-175
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.2, Development (Entry)
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NO.1 IBM Sterling OM provides a single order repository that enables a user to modify,
update or track all
orders real-time for what type of channel?
A. Field Sales
B. Retail Store
C. Call Center
D. Any combination of channels.
Answer: D

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NO.2 How do today s customers interact with a brand?
A. Customers expect the brand to provide a seamless and consistent cross-channel
experience.
B. Customers expect a dedicated and independent system for each channel for more
focused service.
C. Customers are increasing using only a single channel for all their interactions.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.3 IBM Sterling CPQ has customers in many different verticals. Which combination of
verticals reflects
most accurately, the CPQ customers.?
A. Manufacturing, High Tech, Communication/Media/Entertainment, LifeScience, and
Education.
B. Communication/Media/Entertainment/ LifeScience, High Tech, Pharma, Consumer.
C. LifeScience, Manufacturing, Construction, Communication/Media/Entertainment/
Consumer.
D. Manufacturing, High Tech, Communication/Media/Entertainment/ LifeScience, Consumer.
Answer: D

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NO.4 IBM Sterling Configurator can be integrated with other applications. What specific
characteristic makes
it easy to accomplish such integrations?
A. Configurator engine design is based on open standards such as XML and JAV
B. Configurator engine has great performance and scalability characteristics.
C. Configurator engine is a stateless engine.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.5 The ability to have multiple quotes assigned to a single opportunity enables sales
people to
________________.
A. find the optimal price point of a quote
B. handle approvals of quotes
C. make quote negotiations more effective since alternative quotes can be presented to a
prospect
D. Both A and B.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: A2040-918
Exam Name: Assessment: Developing Portlets and Web Applications with IBM WebSphere Portlet Factory 7.0
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Exam Code: C2090-544
Exam Name: DB2 9.7 Advanced DBA for LUW
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Exam Code: P2140-021
Exam Name: IBM Rational Collaborative Lifecycle Management for IT Technical Sales Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 A database and a table space were created using the following commands:
CREATE DATABASE mydb AUTOMATIC STORAGE NO;
CONNECT TO mydb;
CREATE TABLESPACE tbsp1
MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE '/mnt/file1' 1 M, FILE '/mnt/file2' 1 M)
AUTORESIZE YES
INCREASESIZE 2 M
MAXSIZE 100 M;
$>?
Afterwards, two tables were created in table space TBSP1 and both tables were populated
with 100,000
rows. If a DBA decides that database MYDB should use automatic storage, which
command(s) are
needed to convert both the database and table space TBSP1?
A. ALTER DATABASE mydb ADD STORAGE ON ?mnt/path_1? ?mnt/path_2?
B. ALTER DATABASE mydb ADD STORAGE ON ?mnt/path_1? ?mnt/path_2?
ALTER TABLESPACE tbsp1 MANAGED BY AUTOMATIC STORAGE;
C. ALTER DATABASE mydb AUTOMATIC STORAGE YES ON ?mnt/path_1? ?mnt/path_2?
D. ALTER DATABASE mydb AUTOMATIC STORAGE YES ON ?mnt/path_1? ?mnt/path_2?
ALTER TABLESPACE tbsp1 MANAGED BY AUTOMATIC STORAGE;
Answer: B

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NO.2 Given the following statements:
CREATE TABLESPACE mytblsp MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE :\myfile1?1000,
FILE
:\myfile2?800);
ALTER TABLESPACE mytbsp EXTEND (FILE :\myfile1?200, FILE :\myfile2?400);
How large are the containers MYFILE1 and MYFILE2?
A. MYFILE1 = 200 pages, MYFILE2 = 400 pages
B. MYFILE1 = 1200 pages, MYFILE2 = 1000 pages
C. MYFILE1 = 1400 pages, MYFILE2 = 1200 pages
D. MYFILE1 = 1200 pages, MYFILE2 = 1200 pages
Answer: D

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NO.3 A database and a table space were created using the following commands:
CREATE DATABASE mydb AUTOMATIC STORAGE NO;
CONNECT TO mydb;
CREATE TABLESPACE tbsp1
MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE '/mnt/file1' 1 M, FILE '/mnt/file2' 1 M)
AUTORESIZE YES
INCREASESIZE 2 M
MAXSIZE 100 M;
Afterwards, two tables were created in table space TBSP1 and both tables were populated
with 100,000
rows. If a DBA decides that database MYDB should use automatic storage, which
command(s) are
needed to convert the database?
A. ALTER DATABASE mydb ADD STORAGE ON ?mnt/path_1? ?mnt/path_2?
B. ALTER DATABASE mydb ADD STORAGE ON ?mnt/path_1? ?mnt/path_2?
ALTER TABLESPACE tbsp1 MANAGED BY AUTOMATIC STORAGE;
C. ALTER DATABASE mydb AUTOMATIC STORAGE YES ON ?mnt/path_1? ?mnt/path_2?
D. ALTER DATABASE mydb AUTOMATIC STORAGE YES ON ?mnt/path_1? ?mnt/path_2?
ALTER TABLESPACE tbsp1 MANAGED BY AUTOMATIC STORAGE;
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have a database with eight partitions on a single server. Immediately after
executing the following
command:
CREATE BUFFERPOOL mybp DEFERRED SIZE 3000
How much memory is consumed by buffer pool MYBP on the server?
A. 0 pages
B. 3000 pages
C. 24000 pages
D. 192000 pages
Answer: A

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NO.5 A DBA wants to create table space named MYTBLSP in a database with five
partitions.
Which command will create the table space on all five partitions?
A. CREATE TABLESPACE mytblsp MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE
'/tbsp/cont1P$NODES'
5000)
B. CREATE TABLESPACE mytblsp MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE
'/tbsp/cont1P0' to
'/tbsp/cont1P4' 5000)
C. CREATE TABLESPACE mytblsp MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE
'/tbsp/cont1P[0-4]' 5000)
D. CREATE TABLESPACE mytblsp MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE '/tbsp/cont1P
$N' 5000)
Answer: D

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NO.6 Database DB1 is defined on partitions 1 through 4, with the system catalog defined on
partition 2. This
database is configured with LOGRETAIN=YES and TRACKMOD=YES. On Sunday evening,
a full online
database backup completes successfully on all partitions. On Monday afternoon, a new table
space is
created in a database partition group defined on partitions 3 and 4. On Monday evening a
backup is
executed as follows :
BACKUP DATABASE db1 ONLINE INCREMENTAL
What are the results of this operation?
A. The backup completes successfully on the catalog partion only.
B. The backup completes successfully on database partitions 1 and 2, but fails on database
partitions 3
and 4.
C. The backup completes successfully on database partitions 3 and 4, but fails on database
partitions 1
and 2.
D. The backup completes successfully on all database partitions.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Given the following table spaces, their associated page size, and number of pages:
TSP1 - 16K page size, 10000 pages
TSP2 - 8K page size, 10000 pages
TSP3 - 4K page size, 20000 pages
USERSPACE1 - 4K page size, 5000 pages
Which sets of buffer pools will ensure that all of the data in the table spaces will be fit into
memory for
optimal data access?
A. IBMDEFAULTBP - 16K page size, 85000 pages
B. IBMDEFAULTBP - 4K page size, 25000 pages
BP1 -16K page size, 20000 pages
C. BP1 - page size 8K, 45000 pages
D. BP1 - 4K page size, 30000 pages
BP2 - 8K page size, 20000 pages
BP3 - 16K page size, 15000 pages
Answer: D

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NO.8 A DBA needs to create a federated database and configure access to join data from
three Oracle
instances and one DB2 database.
Which objects are needed to establish the specified connections?
A. 1 Oracle server , 1 DB2 server , 3 Oracle wrappers , and nicknames for each database
B. 1 Oracle server , 1 DB2 server , 1 Oracle wrapper , 1 DB2 wrapper , and nicknames for
each database
C. 3 Oracle servers , 1 DB2 server , 3 Oracle wrappers , 1 DB2 wrapper , and nicknames for
each
database
D. 3 Oracle servers , 1 DB2 server , 1 Oracle wrapper , 1 DB2 wrapper , and nicknames for
each
database
Answer: D

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Exam Code: A2040-958
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Notes Hybrid Config & Onboard Data Transfer
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NO.1 A PureFlex sales professional needs to select the best PureFlex Fibre Channel switch and mezzanine
card options for connecting a new PureFlex solution to an existing SAN and storage system. Which of the
following are the best two resources for this need?
A. Techline or Distributor
B. Competeline or Supportline
C. Briefing Center or Competeline
D. Distributor or Supportline
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following PureFlex attributes leverages the expertise and best practices from the industry
to intelligently tune and manage environments and leverages cloud while ensuring mission critical
reliability?
A. Agility
B. Control
C. Efficiency
D. Simplicity
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer is looking to deploy applications quickly and more consistently for their user community.
Faster time-to-value of the applications takes out the manual steps and automating delivery. Which
attribute of the PureFlex address this requirement.?
A. Agility
B. Control
C. Efficiency
D. Simplicity
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is preparing to move their data and applications to a cloud environment. They are going to
use a provider's servers, storage and network resources, but will continue to manage the environment
themselves. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Storage as a Service
B. Software as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
D. Business Process as a Service
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer needs an infrastructure for AIX and Windows application servers with supporting storage
and networking. The customer is not concerned about high availability. Which of the following is the
minimal solution that meets this need?
A. PureFlex Express
B. PureFlex Standard
C. PureFlex Enterprise
D. Flex BTO
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following items would suggest that the use of space efficient FlashCopy for the
Global Mirror secondary volume could present an issue?
A. The customer is using Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Replication to manage Global
Mirror
B. The workload has a large amount of heavy sequential write activity
C. There is a long distance between the primary and secondary sites
D. There are multiple primary disk subsystems in the Global Mirror session
Answer: B

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NO.2 On the DS8870, which of the following drive options is a valid Easy Tier hybrid pool?
A. SLO and eMLO SSDs
B. eMLO SSDs and 5,400 RPM drives
C. 7,200 RPM drives
D. 15,000 RPM and 7,200 RPM drives
Answer: D

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NO.3 A new D58000 mixed mainframe and open storage customer would like to connect older open
(2
Gbps) and mainframe servers (4 Gbps) to the DS8000 system’s 8 Gbps host adapters.
How can this be done?
A. through the GUI, adjust the required FOP ports for open to 2 Gbps and the FIOON ports for
mainframe to 4 Gbps link speed
B. the DS8OIJO supports 4 Gbps for mainframe connection; the 2 Gbps open systems connection
must be connected via an intermediate SAN
C. the customer needs to change the server’s HBA5 to an 8 Gbps link speed type
D. the D58000 8 Gbps Host Adapter ports auto-negotiate to 4 Gbps and 2 Gbps link speed
Answer: D

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NO.4 When configuring LUNs for IBM i which is not using VIOS, which of the following is true?
A. LUNs have 512 byte sectors and must match the size of internal drives.
B. LUNs have 520 byte sectors and must match the size of internal drives.
C. LUNs have 512 byte sectors and are limited to 2 TB.
D. LUNs have 520 byte sectors and are limited to 2 TB.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer has an existing D68800 which is installed in their data center. It now must have an
extra frame added to support additional capacity growth, but there is no room to fit the expansion
frame to the right.
Which option should be taken?
A. Fit the expansion frame to the left of the base frame
B. Configure the expansion frame with the DS8000 Passthrough feature to allow placement of the
frame anywhere
C. Disruptively relocate the D68800 to make space to the right of the base frame for the expansion
frame
D. Create an MES to replace all of the existing capacity with larger drives which support both the
existing workload and the planned increase
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer has recently decommissioned their DS8700 wants to use the same data center
floor
space for a new D38 870.
What is an important fact for the technical specialist to discuss with the customer as it relates to
data center requirements?
A. The DS8870 uses more power than the DS8700 so more power cords will need to be ordered.
B. The DS8870 uses a different power connector than the D68700 so new cords will need to be
supplied.
C. Air circulation in the DS8870 has changed and flows back to front so cooling vent locations will
need to be adjusted.
D. The rack dimensions on the DS8870 are larger than the D38700 so more floor space will be
needed.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer’s IT department has had problems meeting their backup window. They now
mandate
that a fast backup process be in place before an application is deployed. They have a DS8000 as
their disk subsystem and a TS3500 tape library for backups.
What is the simplest and most effective option to satis1i this requirement?
A. Implement TS1 140 drives
B. ImplementFlashCopy
C. Install Solid state Drives
D. Increase cache size
Answer: B

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NO.8 The output of what tool is used as input to Disk Magic to most accurately model a Windows
host
that will be used with an IBM D38000?
A. Jetstress
B. Perimon
C. IOSTAT
D. NMON
Answer: B

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NO.1 The effective use of naming conventions means that objects need to be spaced appropriately
on the DataStage Designer canvas. For stages with multiple links,expanding the icon border can
significantly improve readability. This approach takes extra effort at first, so a pattern of work needs
to be identified and adopted to help development. Which feature of Designer can improve
development speed?
A. Palette Layout
B. Repository Layout
C. Snap to Grid Feature
D. Show Performance Statistics Feature

NO.2 Your job is using the Sequential File stage as a source. Identify two stage property
configurations that will allow you to accomplish parallel reads? (Choose two.)
A. Read Method property set to 'File Pattern' and the environment variable
$APT_IMPORT_PATTERN_USES_FILESET is set to 'FALSE'.
B. Read Method property set to 'File Pattern' and the 'Readers per Node' property value set to
greater than 1.
C. Read Method property is set to 'Parallel' with the Key property set to a Input column that has the
file names.
D. Read Method property set to 'Specific File(s)' with only one file specified and the 'Readers Per
Node' property value set to greater than 1.
E. Read Method property set to 'Specific File(s)' with more than one file specified and each file
specified has the same format/column properties.
Answer: D,E

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NO.3 Identify two different types of custom stages you can create to extend the Parallel job syntax?
(Choose two.)
A. Input stage
B. Basic stage
C. Group stage
D. Custom stage
E. Wrapped stage
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 You are using the Complex Flat File stage as a source in your job. What are two types of data
specifically supported by the Complex Flat File stage for your job? (Choose two.)
A. XML files.
B. Mainframe data sets with VSAM files.
C. Mainframe data files with DB2 tables.
D. Data from files that contain Hadoop record types.
E. Data from flat files that contain multiple record types.
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 When using a Sequential File stage as a source what are the two reject mode property
options? (Choose two.)
A. Set
B. Fail
C. Save
D. Convert
E. Continue
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 What is the result of running the following command: dsjob -report DSProject ProcData
A. Generates a report about the ProcData job, including information about its stages and links.
B. Returns a report of the last run of the ProcData job in a DataStage project named DSProject.
C. Runs the DataStage job named ProcData and returns performance information, including the
number of rows processed.
D. Runs the DataStage job named ProcData and returns job status information, including whether
the job aborted or ran without warnings.
Answer: B

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NO.7 When using Runtime Column Propagation, which two stages require a schema file? (Choose
two.)
A. Peek stage
B. Pivot stage
C. Column Import stage
D. DB2 Connector stage
E. Sequential File stage
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 Which statement is true when using the SaveInputRecord() function in a Transformer stage.
A. You can only use the SaveInputRecord() function in Loop variable derivations.
B. You can access the saved queue records using Vector referencing in Stage variable derivations.
C. You must retrieve all saved queue records using the GetSavedInputRecord() function within Loop
variable derivations.
D. You must retrieve all saved queue records using the GetSavedInputRecord() function within Stage
variable derivations.
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NO.1 Certain clients utilizing WebDAV attempt to lock WebDAV items. Where is esign
locking?enabled for
WebDAV?Certain clients utilizing WebDAV attempt to lock WebDAV items. Where is ?esign
locking?enabled for WebDAV?
A. The Global Web settings document
B. The server configuration document in the Domino Directory
C. The Web Site document that is specified for the WebDAV domain
D. The Design tab of the Database Properties dialog box for each WebDAV database
Answer: D

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NO.2 Kyle wants to specify an alternate location for HTML files to be stored on the Domino
server. Which
field would he modify to achieve this?
A. HTML Database
B. Icon URL Path
C. HTML Directory
D. Icon Directory
Answer: C

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NO.3 An LDAP client can specify a search base when searching a directory. A search base
performs what
function?
A. It tells the LDAP service what view to search.
B. It limits the scope of a search by specifying a point in the directory tree at which to begin.
C. It provides the LDAP service with a username and password for searching a directory
securely.
D. It limits the LDAP search to specific local address books that are encrypted using the
current user ID
file.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Margaret has edited the Web Site configuration document to enable users to see the
realm "Sales" in
the authentication dialog. Which of the following fields were modified?
A. Description
B. Directory or file path
C. Realm name returned to browser
D. Realm label returned to browser
Answer: D

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NO.5 Domino allows you to move files from one directory to another on the same Web
server. What type of
rule should be created so new links do not need to be created?
A. Direction Rule
B. Directory Rule
C. Redirection Rule
D. Substitution Rule
Answer: D

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NO.6 You have created substitution rules on your Domino Web server. However, you failed
to include at least
one wildcard anywhere in the rule. What is the result of this action.?
A. Domino will send the user to the default home page for the Web server.
B. The Domino Web server will ignore the request from the browser session.
C. The user will receive an error code defined by the administrator in this rule.
D. The HTTP task automatically appends "/*" to the pattern when it stores the rule in its
internal table.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which type of Web Rule points incoming URLs to another URL?
A. Directory
B. Redirection
C. Substitution
D. HTTP Response Header
Answer: B

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NO.8 A user sends a search request to Server A, but some of the search results are actually
located in a
database on Server B. What must be configured for Server A to generate the HTML for the
search results
page to point to Server B?
A. The earch results URL?field in the server documentThe ?earch results URL?field in the
server
document
B. The earch results URL?field in the domain documentThe ?earch results URL?field in the
domain
document
C. The enerating references to the Web server?field in the server documentThe ?enerating
references to
the Web server?field in the server document
D. The enerating references to the Web server?field in the domain documentThe ?enerating
references to
the Web server?field in the domain document
Answer: C

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