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Exam Code: C_TSCM52_66
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Procurement with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6
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Exam Code: C_TSCM42_66
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6
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NO.1 Which activity can trigger an automatic availability check for the components of a production
order?
A. Material staging
B. Order rescheduling
C. Order release
D. Goods receipt for a missing part
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following master data can be used with process orders?(Choose three)
A. Serial numbers
B. Master recipes
C. Resources
D. Production/resource tools
E. Production versions
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.3 The final assembly of a finished product should only be triggered when a customer order
arrives.
Which planning strategy for the finished product do you use?
A. Planning with make-to-stock (strategy 10)
B. Planning at the assembly level (strategy 70)
C. Planning without final assembly (strategy 50)
D. Planning with final assembly (strategy 40)
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which objects can affect the calculation of capacity requirements for an operation?(Choose
three)
A. Standard values (routing)
B. In-house production time (material master)
C. Transport time (routing)
D. Formulas (work center)
E. Operation control key (routing)
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 You want to use the different options for planning in SAP ECC.
What is the correct sequence of the planning procedures?
A. Sales and operations planning -> Demand management -> Long-term planning -> Material
requirements planning -> Capacity planning
B. Demand management -> Sales and operations planning -> Capacity planning -> Long-term
planning -> Material requirements planning
C. Material requirements planning -> Demand management -> Sales and operations planning ->
Long-term planning -> Capacity planning
D. Long-term planning -> Sales and operations planning -> Demand management -> Material
requirements planning -> Capacity planning
Answer: A

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NO.6 You want to enhance the system statuses of a production order with user statuses.
How do you do this?
A. Define the user statuses in the order type-dependent parameters.
B. Define a status profile in Customizing and assign it to the production scheduling profile.
C. Define a status profile in Customizing and assign it to the order type.
D. Define the user statuses in the Customizing table of the system statuses.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which types of objects can be changed with Engineering Change Management (ECM)?(Choose
three)
A. Task list
B. Work center
C. Production version
D. Bill of material
E. Material master
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.8 You want to use the function "Read PP master data" in the production order.
However, while calling the function you receive an error message.
What could be the reason?
A. The material availability check has been performed.
B. Goods movements have been posted.
C. The production order has been released.
D. Order papers have been printed.
Answer: B

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C_TPLM30_65 Dumps PDF, C_TBIT44_731 Exam Cost, C-TBIT44-73 Real Questions

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Exam Code: C_TPLM30_65
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Enterprise Asset Management (Maintenance & Repair) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5
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Exam Code: C_TBIT44_731
Exam Name: SAP Certified Development Associate - Process Integration with SAP NetWeaver 7.31
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Exam Code: C-TBIT44-73
Exam Name: SAP Certfied Development Associate - Process Integration with SAP NetWeaver (PI 7.3) (C_TBIT44_73)
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NO.1 In which cases do you need to use ccBPM processes? (Choose two)
A. When collecting messages
B. When querying databases
C. When using a synchronous/asynchronous bridge
D. When using scenarios that are based on an AEX installation
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 You are working on a dual-stack system and want to configure an integration scenario with
one sender and two receivers. Each receiver uses two different service interfaces. The WS adapter is
used for each receiver. The sender provides an IDoc from an ABAP system.
How many sender agreements do you have to configure?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which Web-services-related protocol is supported by SAP NetWeaver PI 7.3?
A. Web Services Description Language (WSDL)
B. WS-Reliable Messaging (WS-RM)
C. Representational state transfer (REST)
D. Open Data Protocol (OData)
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which step types can be used as the first step in an integration process?
A. Block
B. Receive
C. Wait
D. Send
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following are characteristics of enterprise services? (Choose two)
A. They are based on global data types.
B. They are semantically harmonized across applications.
C. They can be easily used as imported archive objects.
D. They can be used to extend BAPIs.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which conversion parameters are available in the SOAP adapter? (Choose two)
A. Keep Headers
B. Do Not Use SOAP Envelope
C. Sync/Async Bridge
D. File Content Conversion
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 You want to build an operation mapping using multiple mapping programs per direction.
Which restrictions do you have to consider?
A. The output of each mapping program must fit the target message type.
B. The mapping programs are processed in the specified sequence from top to bottom.
C. The checkbox must be enabled in interface determination to preserve the sequence during the
runtime.
D. All the mapping programs have to belong to the same namespace.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components use Enterprise Services Repository?
(Choose two)
A. SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse
B. SAP NetWeaver Portal
C. SAP NetWeaver Process Integration
D. SAP NetWeaver Mobile
E. SAP NetWeaver Developer Studio
Answer: C,E

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Exam Name: Avaya Scopia Solution Implementation and Maintenance Exam
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Exam Code: 6103
Exam Name: Avaya ERS 8000 and Avaya VSP 9000 Implementation Exam
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NO.1 Given the following command:
VSP-9012:1S show khi performance
Which Key Health Indicator is only valid for the CP modules?
A. CPU
B. buffer-pool
C. error-count
D. process
E. memory
Answer: A

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NO.2 An engineer is configuring the VSP 9000 for EDM management, and cannot connect from the
EDM computer to the VSP 9000.
Once logged into the ACLI, which show command is used to see the status of the web server?
A. show vsp edm server
B. show ip web-server
C. show sys webserver
D. show web-server
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which multicast technology, used with the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000, allows the
router to determine whether any group members exist on its directly connected networks and
switches?
A. IGAP
B. IGMP
C. DVMRP
D. PIM-SM
Answer: B

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Reference:http://198.152.212.23 /css/P8 /documents/100175888(page 20)

NO.4 When troubleshooting an issue with an ERS 8000, running version 7.2, a technician notices
that the "Online" LED is steady amber for longer than 3 minutes. This is an indication of a software
incompatibility.
What is the first step in resolving this issue?
A. Use the show chassis command to look for software versions running on the switch.
B. Use the show compatibility command to verify that all software running is compatible.
C. Reboot the switch using the boot flags to force the switch to auto-update the software.
D. Use the show log command to check the system log for indications of communication problems.
Answer: D

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NO.5 QoS is the ability to manage the performance of data flows by giving treatment to the data
flows, users, and applications.
For which two network problems would QoS be a good solution? (Choose two.)
A. interface duplex mismatch
B. slow route table convergence
C. lack of bandwidth
D. end-to-end delay
E. network loops
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 In the current business environment everyone is being asked to do more with fewer physical
resources. Using virtualization allows the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 to increase the
services provided.
By using VRF-Lite, what does the VSP 9000 eliminate the need for?
A. SMLT
B. RSMLT
C. Non-overlapping addresses
D. Multiple physical routers
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.avaya.com/usa/resource/assets/factsheet/vsp%209000%20dn4535 %20final
10-10.pdf(page 3, device virtualization)

NO.7 Which function does the "RS" module for the ERS 8000 provide that the "R" module does not?
A. multiple port mirroring
B. multiple port cloning
C. SMLT functionality
D. extended port monitoring
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer is mirroring multiple ports to a single monitor port.
What happens if the mirrored traffic exceeds the bandwidth of the monitor port?
A. The traffic will be buffered until there is available bandwidth.
B. The excess traffic will be dropped randomly.
C. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the mirror priority of the ingress port.
D. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the port priority of the ingress port.
Answer: B

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 13?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 250
D. 999
Answer: B

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NO.2 A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 13 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & " " & LastName
FirstName and LastName are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is
checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. A record is first created
B. Each time the value of the FirstName or LastName field is modified
C. A user selects the menu item Records> Relookup Field Contents
D. Any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. The FirstName or LastName field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 Which two FileMaker Pro 13 objects will display data contents even if unrelated to the current
layout's table occurrence? (Choose two.)
A. Merge variable
B. Indexed timestamp field
C. A text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored number field placed in a portal
E. A container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function
in FileMaker Pro 13 Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64.000
Answer: C

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NO.5 Consider a FileMaker 13 solution with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which
two actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. Create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. Find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. Create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. Display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 A table in a FileMaker 13 solution has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
-Validate data in this field only during data entry -Allow user to override during data entry -Require
not empty -Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported, No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides the
error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement is true about the Filter Portal Records feature in FileMaker Pro 13?
A. The portal filter formula must refer to at least one field in the immediately related table.
B. The feature requires one or more additional relationships to be added to the Relationships Graph.
C. The portal filter formula may not refer to any globally stored fields, summary fields, or unstored
calculation fields.
D. There can be one unique filter formula applied for each portal state (Normal State, In Focus,
Hover, or Pressed).
E. Aggregate functions (e.g., Sum, Count) based on the portal's relationship will not be affected by
the portal's filter formula.
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.)
A. Validation: not empty
B. Validation: unique value
C. Validation: existing value
D. Auto-enter creation timestamp
E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation
F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed
Answer: A,D,E

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Exam Code: VCP-550
Exam Name: VMware Certified Professional on vSphere 5 Exam
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Last Update: 2014-08-31

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Exam Code: VDCD510
Exam Name: VMware Certified Advanced Professional - Datacenter DesignExam
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NO.1 An administrator attempts to install vCenter Single Sign-On Server. The installer returns an
error message indicating that the installation failed. Prior to the installation, all setup prerequisites
were met. The administrator has generated a vCenter Server Single Sign-On support bundle.
Which two files should the administrator analyze to determine the cause of the failure?
(Choose two.)
A. Server\utils\logs\imsTrace.log
B. Server\utils\logs\install.txt
C. %TEMP%\utils\logs\vminst.log
D. %TEMP%\vminst.log
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 -- Exhibit --
-- Exhibit --
Which two statements below could explain why the vSphere Client is reporting N/A for
hyperthreading? (Choose two.)
The physical CPUs in the host do not support hyperthreading.
A. Hyperthreading is disabled in the host's BIOS.
B. The physical CPUs in the host are not multi-core.
C. The number of CPUs meets or exceeds the maximum without hyperthreading.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 An administrator needs to deploy several virtual machines. Storage contention between the
virtual machines should be managed by the VMkernel. Some of the virtual machines will use MSCS
and should be highly available across the ESXi 5.5 hosts.
Which two storage options meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. iSCSI
B. NFS
C. Fibre Channel
D. vSAN
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 What two IT infrastructure components are virtualized by vSphere Essentials? (Choose two.)
A. Networks
B. Applications
C. Storage
D. Management
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which Single Sign-On deployment mode should an administrator use for two 5.x vCenter
Servers configured with linked mode?
A. Basic Single Sign-On with vCenter Server Heartbeat
B. Multisite Single Sign-On
C. Basic Single Sign-On
D. Single Sign-On with Linked Mode
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two Identity Sources are available to add for vCenter Single Sign-On authentication?
(Choose two.)
A. LocalOS
B. OpenLDAP
C. NIS as an LDAP Server
D. VCMSDS
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 An administrator is upgrading a vSphere Distributed Switch. The existing switch is version
5.0 and the administrator wants to upgrade to the latest version possible. The environment contains
several ESXi 5.1 hosts.
Which two options are available to ensure that the upgraded switch will be compatible with these
hosts? (Choose two.)
A. Upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5
B. Upgrade the ESXi 5.1 hosts to version 5.5, then upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5
C. Upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.1
D. Upgrade the ESXi host switches to 5.5, then upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Which VLAN configuration requires switch connectivity defined as an access port?
A. Private VLAN
B. External Switch Tagging
C. Virtual Guest Tagging
D. Virtual Switch Tagging
Answer: B

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NO.1 Consider the following diagram:
Which of the following statements best interprets this diagram?
A. Output generation is explicitly modeled as the collective behavior of the application components:
Policy administration application and Financial application
B. Output generation is an application service that is realized in a joint effort of the Policy
administration application and the Financial application
C. Output generation is behavior that is present in the Policy administration application as well as in
the Financial application
D. Output generation represents the application collaboration of the Policy administration
application and Financial application
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which Implementation and Migration Extension viewpoint is used to model the management
of architecture change?
A. Migration viewpoint
B. Implementation and Migration viewpoint
C. Business Function viewpoint
D. Project viewpoint
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following answers contains only concepts within the scope of the ArchiMate
Implementation and Migration extension?
A. Work Package, Artifact, Plateau, Driver
B. Work Package, Deliverable, Plateau, Gap
C. Project, Work Package, Deliverable, Plateau
D. Project, Resource, Deliverable, Gap
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which concept from the Motivation extension is most appropriate to represent a concern of
one or more stakeholders?
A. Assessment
B. Driver
C. Requirement
D. Goal
Answer: B

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NO.5 The Document Archiving application relies on an archiving service, which it accesses through a
reliable queuing interface.
Which relationship would most accurately describe this situation?
A. Assignment
B. Realization
C. Used By
D. Triggering
Answer: C

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NO.6 Consider the following symbol:
Which of the following best describes what this symbol represents?
A. A modular, deployable, and replaceable part of a software system that encapsulates its behavior
and data and exposes these through a set of interfaces
B. A perceptible form of the information carried by a business object
C. A physical piece of data used or produced in software development, or by system deployment
and operation
D. A software environment for specific types of components and objects that are deployed on it
Answer: C

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NO.7 Consider the following diagram:
Which of the numbered relationships is correct according to the ArchiMate metamodel?
A. Number 1
B. Number 2
C. Number 3
D. Number 4
Answer: B

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NO.8 Consider the following diagram:
Which of the following most correctly interprets the diagram?
A. A Claim Letter represents a Claim Judgment
B. Information from Claim Letters is considered in Claim Judgments
C. Claim Letters are written before Claim Judgments are made
D. A Claim Letter is a particular type of Claim Judgment
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2010-570
Exam Name: IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 Implementation
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Exam Code: C2040-409
Exam Name: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition Application Development A
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Exam Code: C4070-622
Exam Name: System z Business Resiliency Solution Selling
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NO.1 A customer's service level agreement has the following components and configuration
characteristics:
-RTO=24 hours -RPO=1 hour -Flash Copy to a single set of disks at a remote site -Tape backup once
per day
What would be the state of the data if a disaster occurred during a resynchronization process?
A. There would be some data loss, but the data would need to be resynchronized.
B. There would be some data loss, but RPO and RTO would support service level agreements.
C. The data would be unreliable and their RTO and RPQ would exceed service level agreements.
D. The data would be reliable with the tape backup, and support the RTO, but the RPO would
exceed service level agreements.
Answer: C

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4. When considering an environment with one zEnterprise server (CEO) and one instance of z/OS,
which of the following contributes to High Availability?
A. Parallel sysplex
B. Application failover
C. Processor Unit Sparing
D. Multiple copies of the data
Answer: C

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5. Which of the following are typically included as a part of the services component in any of the
GDPS family of products?
A. Project planning Local field support Installation assistance tools Web based training programs
B. Disaster recovery planning Development of test methodology Network implementation services
Remote implementation assistance
C. Availability planning Onsite education and training Configuration recommendations Installation
and customization assistance
D. Sizing tools TCO cost recovery tools Workload and batch analysis tools Capacity and performance
monitoring tools
Answer: C

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6. Which of the following should be included in a manufacturing customer's Business Resilience
plan?
A. Supply chain management procedure
B. Security badge replacement procedure
C. Process to record employee time cards
D. Procurement and capital acquisition processes
Answer: A

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7. A customer has an RTO of 1 to 2 hours, and an RPO of <10 seconds. The primary concerns are
to protect against a regional failure and the cost of the solution. Which of the following supports
these requirements?
A. GDPS/XRC
B. GDPSMZGM
C. GDPS/PPRC
D. GDPS/Active Active
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following considered as an element of High Availability for the System z platform?
A. GRS STAR
B. Capacity Backup (CBU)
C. Sysplex Failure Management (SPM)
D. Modified Indirect Data Address Word (MIDAW) facility
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer is documenting their Disaster Recovery process, and is considering all aspects of
running the business.
The following elements have been identified as essential:
-Secondary data center location and equipment -Key responsibilities of critical business units
-Up-to-date emergency contact information for all staff
In addition to these elements, which personnel should be listed as essential to be actively engaged
in the event of a disaster?
A. Mid-level management
Storage administrators
Application development programmer(s)
Network administrator(s)
B. System programmer(s)
Performance and capacity management team
Network administrator(s)
Operations analyst
C. Workload schedulers
System operator(s)
Storage administrator(s)
Disaster Recovery Manager
D. Database administrator(s)
System programmer(s)
Network administrator(s)
Disaster Recovery manager
Answer: D

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NO.1 A technical specialist is working with a customer on a new Storwize V7000 installation. The
customer wants to begin the process of virtualization on external storage.
Which of the following licensing requirements must the technical specialist take into account?
A. When external storage is virtualized by a Storwize V7000, a per-TB external virtualization license
is required.
B. When external storage is virtualized by a Storwize V7000, a per-enclosure external virtualization
license is required.
C. Virtualization licenses are not required for the external storage once it is migrated and still under
Storwize V7000 control
D. Virtualization licenses are required for external storage when that storage will be migrated and
then released from Storwize V7000 control.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The customer is having a problem adding LUNs from a SAN-attached DS5020. The LUNs are
showing up multiple times. The hosts are running Windows 2008 R2 Enterprise.
How can this situation be resolved?
A. Install RDAC for DS5020
B. Check the default HBA settings
C. Install IBM MPIO Device Specific Module (DSM)
D. Install SDDDSM drivers and update HBA firmware
Answer: C

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NO.3 A technical specialist has been asked to design a solution to address a video imaging archiving
need. The customer needs to store images on disk for 90 days then keep them on tape for a period
of 7 years. There will be little access to the data once it is written initially unless it is needed for legal
reason. There is no need for high performance and the video files are quite large in size. Initially,
there will be 2 PB of data to be archived with an estimated annual growth of 50 percent over the
next two years
Which software solution should the specialist recommend as part of this design"?
A. Tivoli Storage Manager FastBack
B. Tivoli Storage Manager Extended Edition
C. Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Networks
D. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Select Edition
Answer: D

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NO.4 A technical specialist has been asked to design a solution to address a video imaging
archiving need. The customer needs to store images on disk for 90 days then keep them on tape for
a period of 7 years. There will be little access to the data once it is written initially, unless it is
needed for legal reasons. There is no need for high performance and the video files are quite large
in size. Initially, there will be 20 TB of data to be archived with an estimated annual growth of 50
percent for the next five years. The customer wants to add the tape system into a 42U rack and
wants to be able to scale the tape system for more cartridge slots and more drives
What solution should the technical specialist recommend to meet these requirements?
A. TS3500 with LTO-5 drives
B. TS3100 with LTO-5 drives
C. TS3310with LTO-5 drives
D. TS3200 with LTO-5 drives
Answer: C

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NO.5 An N series customer wants to recover their database volumes to a point in time. Which
combination of N series features will accomplish this?
A. Snapshot and SnapRestore
B. SnapVault and SnapRestore
C. SyncMirror and SnapRestore
D. MetroCluster and SnapRestore
Answer: A

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NO.6 What tool should be used to size an IBM N series for performance?
A. eConfig
B. Disk Magic
C. Capacity Magic
D. System Performance Modeler
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer wants to utilize Real-time Compression (RtC) in their environment and needs to
determine the impact directly in the Storwize V7000 resoures.
What would the technical specialist advise the customer to use to make this determination?
A. Use the Storage Tier Adviser Tool
B. Use the Comprestimator tool.
C. Use a 45-day evaluation license of RtC
D. Run a Disk Magic study
Answer: C

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NO.8 What GUI-based system management tool is used to manage N series storage subsystems and
N series system objects?
A. OnCommand
B. AutoSupport
C. SnapManager Suite
D. Tivoli Storage Manager
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which solution offering is only available for the System z platform?
A. CloudBurst
B. SmartCloud
C. CloudSpace
D. CloudReady
Answer: D

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NO.2 How can a customer improve consistency in its application server environment?
A. Using SmartCloud Workbench
B. Using SmartCloud Audit Control
C. Updating existing servers using Tivoli Provisioning Manager
D. Keeping servers the same using Tivoli Provisioning Manager
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which System z Cloud feature provides scalability to meet Service Level Agreements without
over-provisioning to meet peak capacity, like Teradata and ExaData?
A. HiperSockets
B. HiperDispatch
C. Level 4 Cache
D. On/Off Capacity on Demand
Answer: D

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NO.4 Why would System z Cloud be an advantage for a customer with limited human IT resources?
A. It requires less administration.
B. It costs less per virtual machine.
C. It uses less space in the data center.
D. It consumes less power in the data center
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the recommended first step when implementing System z Cloud?
A. Cooling water
B. Seismic evaluation
C. Energy assessment
D. Direct current availability
Answer: C

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NO.6 A large software development company that works with customer critical data is losing profits
because of inconsistent versions of its products that several clients use. This situation is causing
customers to migrate to a different solution.
How can a Cloud environment help reduce costs without compromising the security of the data?
A. The patch management capabilities in a System z Cloud maintains the application and
middleware versions.
B. Adopting a private Cloud solution will give the software company a faster go-to-market and
obtain new customers to replace lost revenue.
C. A public Cloud with one application and database server per customer provides the necessary
controls of the application and middleware version with lower cost.
D. A public Cloud with a unique database server and a unique application server for all customers
guarantees that all systems would be at the same release and also provides security.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer wants to build an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model to host external Cloud
services. Which product is needed to move toward this objective?
A. xCAT
B. TOSCA
C. SmartCloud Control Desk
D. SmartCloud Cost Management
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which feature of System z processor virtualization reduces the latency of cross partition
communications?
A. HiperSockets
B. HyperTransport
C. QuickPath Interconnect (QPI)
D. Jupiter Interconnect System Bus Architecture
Answer: A

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NO.1 If problems occur during C&DS 5.0 repository configuration, which directory contains
the log files to
review for errors?
A. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/install/log
B. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/log
C. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/config/log
D. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/debug/ConfigTool/log
Answer: B

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NO.2 If the keystore file that is generated during the C&DS installation is inadvertently
deleted from the
system, which of the following steps must be performed to recover.?
A. Execute the genkey utility within the <C&DS_Install>\bin directory.
B. Enable encryption within the Tools => Security menu.
C. Manually create a new keystore file in the expected location.
D. C&DS will need to be reinstalled.
Answer: D

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NO.3 If the 'Data Collection Execution Server' entry is not listed as a Type when attempting
to define a new
Server Definition, which of the following steps would you recommend to a customer to
resolve it?
A. Restart the application server for C&DS.
B. Verify the a connection to Data Collection can be established.
C. Verify the Data Collection Adapter is applied to C&DS.
D. Restart the database that houses the C&DS repository.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are the steps to start creating a Time-based schedule in the Content Explorer?
A. Right-click the job, choose ?Right-click the job, choose new Schedule ? Time Based
B. Setup a message domain, then right-click the job, choose ?Setup a message domain, then
right-click
the job, choose new Schedule ? Time Based
C. Select the jobstep within the job, choose Schedule tab, enter scheduling details
D. Select the object (e.g. Modeler stream) to be executed by the job, choose File, New,
Create
Time-Based job schedule
Answer: A

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NO.5 R&D fixed an issue with Modeler integration in Deployment Manager client. A Fix
Pack has been
released. For which product and which fix should the customer look on Fix Central?
A. Product: C&DS; Fix Pack for C&DS Server
B. Product: C&DS; Fix Pack for C&DS Adapter
C. Product: Modeler; Fix Pack for Modeler Server
D. Product: Modeler; Fix Pack for Modeler Adapter
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement correctly applies to the versioning capability of C&DS?
A. Version control and object version labels ensure the latest versions of assets are being
used in
production processes.
B. Old object versions are automatically deleted to preserve storage.
C. An analyst can store a version of a file in development, and modify it until it is finalized and
ready to be
moved into a production process.
D. Versioning refers to the ability to merge multiple object versions into one version.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer wants to automate the rerun of a C&DS job each time a Modeler stream in
one of the
jobsteps is updated. How can this be achieved?
A. A message-based job schedule can run a job, based on a notification message sent at the
update of
the Modeler stream.
B. This can only be achieved through a time based schedule if the Modeler stream is updated
at fixed
times.
C. C&DS does not allow this kind of dependency
D. Define a "loop" connector between the Modeler jobstep and the job.
Answer: A

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NO.8 An administrator applied a patch to the C&DS installation and started the server. A
user, using the
Deployment Manager windows client, is complaining that an issue that the patch should have
fixed in the
client is not working. What should the administrator check to resolve this?
A. Ensure the user downloaded and manually installed the corresponding client patch.
B. Verify if the client license is still valid.
C. The only way to install a client update is to re-download the Deployment Manager client
from the server.
Make sure that this has been done.
D. Ensure the user restarted the Deployment Manager Windows client, after having received
a version
update message.
Answer: D

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NO.1 When speaking of the current state of IBM Notes and Domino momentum, which of the
following statement is NOT true?
A. IBM Notes and Domino still maintains a large percentage of email market share
B. Notes is dead
C. IBM Notes and Domino have delivered new features each and every year since 2007
D. IBM Notes and Domino have over 50,000 customers
Answer: A

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NO.2 With regards to Notes and Domino licensing, the term CAL refers to:
A. Code Application Language
B. Core Activity Linkage
C. Client Access License
D. Client Anchor Logic
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/software/lotus/notesanddomino/licensing.html

NO.3 Which one of the following best describes hybrid deployment for our software customers?
A. Software deployed both as an on premise solution as well as in the cloud
B. Utilizing highly energy efficient servers to save customers' electricity costs
C. Being able to run on a wide variety of operating systems
D. Backwards compatible databases that run on past versions of our software releases
Answer: A

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NO.4 An active license of Notes and Domino provides instant messaging and presence awareness via
IBM Sametime. Which of the following is NOT a known benefit of this powerful capability?
A. Faster decision-making by getting the answer instantly from a colleague via chat
B. Increased costs from deploying high network bandwidth chat capability
C. Improved customer engagement by improved responsiveness
D. Reduced travel costs from online e-meetings instead of face-to-face meetings
Answer: B

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NO.5 A Processor Value Unit is linked to:
A. How much capacity a server can handle due to the number of its processor cores
B. How much capacity a server can handle due to the amount of RAM the server has installed
C. The value of a server due to the operating system cost
D. The value of a server due to the net price of the server hardware
Answer: A

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NO.6 Embedded experiences is best defined in the Notes client as:
A. A The capability to attach large files to your emails
B. The ability to import spreadsheet data into a view
C. The ability to deploy the Notes client via a hybrid configuration
D. The ability to view content, as well as respond socially, all in the context of your inbox
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which one of the following features is NOT new in IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition?
A. A Click on URLs in edit mode
B. Paste As Plain Text
C. New shortcut keys like Ctrl+Shift+R for "Reply to All"
D. Ability to import spreadsheet data into a view
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following common phrases that you should be prepared to address are NOT
likely to be heard when calling on existing Notes and Domino customers?
A. I'd like to pay more for software licenses, please.
B. Didn't IBM just kill Lotus?
C. I have an old version of Notes and it's working fine.
D. Notes is too expensive and I don't see the value of it.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following are considered "tier 1" competitors?
A. Tangoe
B. SAP
C. AT & T
D. Telesoft
Answer: A

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NO.2 In TEM what does the acronym "BYOD" stand for?
A. Buy Your Own Data
B. Beyond Data
C. Bring Your Own Device
D. Bring Your Own Design
Answer: C

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NO.3 Customers are indicating a desire for termination-at-will contracting, which indicates:
A. Short sales cycles
B. A vote of no confidence
C. Good buyer relationships
D. Low cost purchase
Answer: A

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NO.4 The global TEM Compounded Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) is approximately:
A. 10%
B. 12%
C. 17%
D. 21%
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.reportlinker.com/p0787925 /Global-Telecom-Expense-Management-Market.h
tml(see first para on the page)

NO.5 Which of the following statements is false?
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B. The IBM offer focuses on wireless telecomm assets only
C. The IBM offer includes all critical TEM processes required by the Gartner TEM definition
D. The IBM offer is composed of multiple software platforms
Answer: B

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