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Exam Code: 9A0-068
Exam Name: Adobe (After Effects CS3 ACE EXAM )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 95 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-01

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NO.1 You want to render a movie file from a composition. The composition is of a motion picture sequence
and involves heavy effects. You want to render the composition by using a network of render engines.
What should you do in the Render Queue panel?
A.Set the Output Module to render an AVI uncompressed movie file.
B.On the Render Settings menu, select Use Open GL Renderer.
C.On the Render Settings menu, set the Proxy Use option to Use No Proxies.
D.Set the Output Module to render a still-image sequence and add a post render action to create a single
movie file.
Answer:D

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button You have three layers in a composition. You place them at different distances
from the camera. You want the farthest layer to look blurred, as shown in the Exhibit. What should you do
in the Camera Settings dialog box?
A.Set the Focal Length lower than zoom.
B.Set the Blur Level value to 100 percent.
C.Select Enable Depth of Field.
D.Choose 80mm camera from the Preset menu.
Answer:C

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NO.3 In a composition, you have a layer showing a man holding a rectangular signboard in his hands. The
man is continuously moving, shaking, and turning the sign. You want to track the movement of the sign to
substitute it with a graphic in another layer. What should you do?
A.Track the sign using the Parallel Corner Pin Track Type.
B.Track the sign using the Perspective Corner Pin Track Type.
C.Stabilize the position and rotation of the sign, and then track its position.
D.Track the position of a corner of the sign, and apply the tracked data to the Anchor Point of the graphic.
Answer:B

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NO.4 You create an animation of a car chasing another car around a circular track. However, the speed of
the animation changes abruptly on frames with a keyframe. What should you do?
A.Click the keyframe in the Composition panel with the Convert Vertex tool.
B.Change the keyframe interpolation in the Timeline panel to Continuous Bezier.
C.Select the keyframes in the Timeline panel and click Convert selected keyframes to Linear in the Graph
Editor.
D.Select the keyframes in the Timeline panel and click Convert selected keyframes to Hold in the Graph
Editor.
Answer:B

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NO.5 You render multiple items in a day. You want to add specific information, such as the compressor name
and frame size, to the name of each rendered file. You also want to use this set of parameters in the future.
What should you do?
A.Select the render items and choose Edit> Duplicate with File Name.
B.Choose the Custom value from the Output To menu to create and save a default name in the File Name
Templates dialog box.
C.Select all the render items and click the underlined filename next to Output To to enter a new filename.
D.Choose Preferences >Output and select the Use Default File Name and Folder option.
Answer:B

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NO.6 You have an image sequence in a layer. Every image in the sequence has duration of five frames. You
want a smooth transition between the images. Frame blending is checked in the Timeline. How can you
quickly obtain and preview Frame Blending mode for those images?
A.Choose the Time Stretch option for the current layer.
B.Choose Time Remapping to alter the speed of the sequence.
C.Apply the Timewarp effect, and choose the Pixel Motion Method.
D.Choose the Frame Mix mode from the Frame Blending option.
Answer:D

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NO.7 What is the file extension of an animation preset?
A..aefx
B..afx
C..ffx
D..aex
Answer:C

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NO.8 You are working on a shot in a layer, showing a car approaching a fixed camera. The car is coming
straight toward the camera. At the end of the shot, the car stops, filling the screen with the front profile of
the car and showing the car logo in the center of the frame. You want to substitute the circular logo on the
front of the car with a graphic on another layer. What should you do?
A.Set Parallel Corner Pin track points at the beginning of the shot, and click Analyze Forward.
B.Set Perspective Corner Pin track points at the beginning of the shot, and click Analyze Forward.
C.Set Position and Scale track points for the logo at the end of the shot, and click Analyze Backward.
D.Set Rotation and Scale track points for the logo at the end of the shot, and click Analyze Backward.
Answer:C

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NO.9 You want to convert PAL footage to the NTSC standard to use in future projects and compositions. What
should you do?
A.Choose Lower Field First for Field Rendering and WSSWW for the 3:2 pull-down menu.
B.Drag the footage from the Project panel to the Render Queue and choose Microsoft DV NTSC for
Output Module.
C.Change the frame rate of the footage to 29.97 fps.
D.Select the footage in the Timeline panel and choose the Frame Blending Option.
Answer:A

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NO.10 In the Graph Editor, you select the Auto-Select Graph Type option. In the Timeline panel, you select a
layer's position property. What will be displayed in the Graph Editor?
A.The Transform box.
B.The Reference graph.
C.The Value graph.
D.The Speed graph.
Answer:D

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NO.11 You create a string of text on a text layer. You want to animate one character such that it rotates
around its y-axis. What should you do?
A.In the Timeline panel, enable the 3D layer switch and then adjust the layer's Y Rotation value.
B.In the Timeline panel, enable the 3D layer switch and then apply a Rotation animator.
C.From the Animate menu in the text layer, select Enable Per-character 3D and then apply a Rotation
animator.
D.From the Animate menu in the text layer, apply a Rotation animator.
Answer:C

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NO.12 You animate the first two keyframes of a swaying pendulum. You want to duplicate these keyframes.
What should you do?
A.Select both keyframes and hold the CTRL(Windows) or COMMAND(Mac) key while dragging.
B.Select both keyframes and hold the ALT(Windows) or OPTION(Mac) key while dragging.
C.Select the layer and copy and paste by moving the CTI to the location where you want to paste it.
D.Select the first two keyframes, move the CTI to where you want the first selected keyframe to be pasted,
and then copy and paste the keyframe.
Answer:D

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NO.13 Your composition contains video and animated text. You want to export the composition in a format
suitable for playing in mobile devices. You also want to preview the result in Adobe Device Central. What
should you do?
A.Choose File> Export to export in MPG-4 format.
B.Choose File> Export to export in Adobe Flash Video (FLV) format.
C.Add the composition to the render queue and choose the H.264 format in the Output Module Settings
dialog box.
D.Add the composition to the render queue and choose the QuickTime Movie format in the Output Module
Settings dialog box.
Answer:C

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NO.14 You create a block of paragraph text in the Composition panel. The text lines are too close together.
Which text property should you adjust to decrease the vertical space between the text lines?
A.Vertical scale
B.Tracking
C.Leading
D.Kerning
Answer:C

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NO.15 You have a composition with 3D layers and a camera. The camera is animated. You choose the 4
Views-Right option from the Select View Layout menu in the Composition panel. How are the four views
configured?
A.The four views represent the same predefined right view with different zooms.
B.The four views are automatically set to four predefined views (Right, Left, Front, and Top).
C.The 4 Views options represent four possible cameras in the composition. If the number of cameras is
less, some views are disabled.
D.All the four views contain specific 3D views and the view on the left is bigger than the others.
Answer:D

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NO.16 You want to link the Opacity property of one layer with the Rotation property of another layer. You also
want to create a relative relationship between them. What should you do?
A.Apply a linear expression to either the Opacity property or the Rotation property.
B.Use parenting to make the layer with the targeted Opacity property as the child of the layer with the
targeted Rotation property.
C.Use parenting to make the layer with the targeted Rotation property as the child of the layer with the
targeted Opacity property.
D.Apply an expression to either property and use the Expression pick whip to link them.
Answer:D

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NO.17 You add a Scale animator to a text layer and adjust the Range Selector. You want to animate another
property by using the same Range Selector. What should you do?
A.Select the Text property of the layer and add a new Animator from the Timeline panel.
B.Select the text layer and add a new Animator from the Timeline panel.
C.Select the Scale animator, go to the Animation menu, and then select a new property from the Animate
Text menu.
D.Select the Scale animator, go to the Add menu, and then select Range from the Add Text Selector
menu.
Answer:C

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NO.18 A layer contains a video showing people at a train station, moving from left to right in front of a fixed
camera. You have time remapped the layer to obtain a slow motion effect. Therefore, the layer repeats
many frames. You want to blur and fade together the current repeating frames. Moreover, you do NOT
want to create new frames. What should you do in the Timeline panel?
A.Enable the Best Quality switch.
B.Enable the Motion Blur switch.
C.Enable the Frame Mix Blending mode.
D.Enable the Pixel Motion Blending mode.
Answer:C

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NO.19 You import an image of grayscale clouds and add it to a composition. You want to use the highlights in
the image to reveal the content immediately beneath the image and the shadows in the image to conceal
the content beneath the image. What should you do?
A.On the layer immediately below the clouds layer, select Luma Inverted Matte from the Modes column of
the Timeline panel.
B.On the layer immediately below the clouds layer, select Luma Matte from the Modes column of the
Timeline panel.
C.On the clouds layer, select Luma Inverted Matte from the Modes column of the Timeline panel.
D.On the clouds layer, select Luma Matte from the Modes column of the Timeline panel.
Answer:B

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NO.20 You apply a text animation preset to a text layer. What happens when you apply a second text
animation preset to the same layer?
A.The new preset replaces the behavior from the original preset.
B.The selectors from the original preset are preserved, and the animators from the new preset replace the
animators from the original preset.
C.The original preset is preserved, and new animators and selectors are added.
D.The animators from the original preset are preserved, and the selectors from the new preset replace
the selectors from the original preset.
Answer:C

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Exam Code: 9A0-182
Exam Name: Adobe (Flex 4.5 ACE Exam )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-01

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NO.1 When design pattern is used to define the passing of typed data between the client and remote server?
A. Mediator
B. Factory
C. Fa ade
D. Data transfer Object
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement describes the access rules for a variable marked as private?
A. Any class
B. Any class that extends the class
C. The class itself
D. Other classes in the same package
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are creating a custom component, MyComp based on the UIComponent class. What statement
correctly declares the MyComp class.?
A. Public class MyComp extend UIComponent 0
B. Public class MyComp implements UIComponent 0
C. Public class UIComponent as MyComp 0
D. Public class MyComp base UIComponent
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the return type of the E4X statement: imageData.image
A. XML
B. XMLList
C. String
D. Array
Answer: A

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NO.5 Given the following snippet var ac ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection().
ac.addItem(0).
ac addItem(1).
ac addItem(2).
ac.addItem(3).
acaddItemAt(2.l).
var kuint = ac[1]
What is the value of k?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: B

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NO.6 You have created a Flex application that contains a custom component with the id of myComp The
Application class needs to be altered whenever a property named score is updated inside myComp.
Which approach should be used to implement this functionality while encapsulation?
A. myComp would dispatch a custom event when score is changed
B. The Application anon class would bind to the score property in myComp
C. The Application class would add an event listener to the control updating score in myComp
D. The score property would be changed to a public property
Answer: A

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NO.7 Given the following code:
user firstName = "Bruno";
Which declaration would enable you to set the firstName property as shown?
A. public functionsetFirstName (value String):void{}
B. public function getFirstName{}: String{}
C. public function get firstName():void{}
D. public function set firstName(value String):void{}
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which annotation is used in an ActionScript class to map it to a corresponding Java class
A. [RemoteObject]
B. [Bindable]
C. [RemoteClass]
D. [ClassMap]
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which statement describes ArrayList and ArrayCollection components?
A. Both ArrayList and ArrayCollection can be used as data providers for Spark list-based controls
B. ArrayList collection are sortable and filterable
C. When using an Array as a data provider for a Spark list-based control, it will automatically be wrapped
within ArrayList
D. ArrayList supports cursors, unlike ArrayCollection
Answer: A

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NO.10 Give the ActionScript class:
public class MyClass implements IResizable { }
What can be said about MyClass?
A. MyClass inherits all the functionality of the IResizable class
B. MyClass is the super class of the IResizable class
C. IResizable is the super class of MyClass
D. MyClass must have all methods defined in IResizable
Answer: D

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Exam Name: PostgreSQL-CE (PostgreSQL CE 8 Silver)
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Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Select two suitable statements regarding the data types of PostgreSQL.
A.One field can handle up to 1GB of data.
B.'n' in CHARACTER(n) represents the number of bytes.
C.Only the INTEGER type can be declared as an array.
D.There is a non-standard PostgreSQL data type, called Geometric data type, which handles
2-dimensional data.
E.A large object data type can be used to store data of unlimited size.
Answer:A D

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NO.2 Four SQL statements were executed in the following order. CREATE TABLE foo (bar INT); ALTER
TABLE foo ALTER bar TYPE BIGINT; ALTER TABLE foo ADD baz VARCHAR(5); ALTER TABLE foo
DROP bar; Select two SQL statements that generate an error when executed.
A.INSERT INTO foo VALUES ('12345');
B.INSERT INTO foo VALUES ('5000000000');
C.INSERT INTO foo VALUES ('ABC');
D.INSERT INTO foo VALUES (2000000000);
E.INSERT INTO foo VALUES (NULL);
Answer:B D

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NO.3 Given the following two table definitions, select one SQL statement which will cause an error. CREATE
TABLE sample1 (id INTEGER, data TEXT); CREATE TABLE sample2 (id INTEGER);
A.SELECT id AS data, data FROM sample1;
B.SELECT id, id FROM sample1;
C.SELECT s1.id, s2.id FROM sample1 AS s1, sample1 AS s2;
D.SELECT s1.id, s2.id FROM sample1 s1, sample2 s2;
E.SELECT s1.id, s2.data FROM sample1 s1, sample2 s2;
Answer:E

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NO.4 Select two suitable statements regarding creating a new table.
A.There is no upper limit to the number of columns in a table.
B.A newly created table is empty and has 0 rows.
C.You can only use alphabetic characters for a table name.
D.The row name must be within 16 characters.
E.The SQL 'CREATE TABLE' statement is used to create a new table.
Answer:B E

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NO.5 The "animal" table consists of the following data: Select the correct result returned by executing the
following SQL statement: SELECT name FROM animal ORDER BY weight DESC LIMIT 2 OFFSET 1;
A.A syntax error will occur.
Answer:A

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NO.6 The following SQL statements were executed using psql. Select the appropriate statement about the
result. LISTEN sign_v; BEGIN; NOTIFY sign_v; COMMIT; LISTEN sign_v;
A.At the point that 'NOTIFY sign_v' is executed, a message that starts with "Asynchronous notification
'sign_v' received" is output.
B.At the point that 'COMMIT' is executed, a message that starts with "Asynchronous notification 'sign_v'
received" is output.
C.At the point that 'SELECT * FROM pg_user;" is executed, a message that starts with "Asynchronous
notification 'sign_v' received" is output.
D.When 'LISTEN sign_v' is executed for the second time, a message that starts with "Asynchronous
notification 'sign_v' received" is output.
E.The message "Asynchronous notification 'sign_v' received" is not received while in this connection.
Answer:B

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NO.7 Select two suitable statements regarding the following SQL statement: CREATE TRIGGER trigger_1
AFTER UPDATE ON sales FOR EACH ROW EXECUTE PROCEDURE write_log();
A.It is defining a trigger "trigger_1".
B.Every time 'UPDATE' is executed on the "sales" table, the "write_log" function is called once.
C.The "write_log" function is called before 'UPDATE' takes place.
D.'UPDATE' is not executed if "write_log" returns NULL.
E.'DROP TRIGGER trigger_1 ON sales;' deletes the defined trigger.
Answer:A E

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NO.8 Select the most suitable statement about the PostgreSQL license from below.
A.PostgreSQL is distributed under the GPL license.
B.PostgreSQL is distributed under the PostgreSQL license.
C.PostgreSQL is distributed under the LGPL license.
D.PostgreSQL is distributed under the BSD license.
E.PostgreSQL is distributed under the X11(MIT) license.
Answer:D

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NO.9 Table "t1" is defined below. Table "t1" has a column "id" of type INTEGER, and a column "name" of
type TEXT. t1: The following SQL is executed while client "A" is connected. BEGIN; SELECT * FROM t1
WHERE id = 2 FOR UPDATE; SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE id = 1 FOR UPDATE; -- (*) While the second
'SELECT' statement, shown with (*), is being executed, a separate client "B" connects and executes the
following SQL. Select the correct statement about the execution results. UPDATE t1 SET name = 'turtle'
WHERE id = 2; Note: the default transaction isolation level is set to "read committed".
A.The update process for client "B" is blocked until the current connection for client "A" is finished.
B.The update process for client "B" is blocked until the current transaction for client "A" is finished.
C.The 'UPDATE' process for client "B" proceeds regardless of the condition of client "A".
D.The process of client "B" immediately generates an error.
E.The processes for both clients are blocked, and an error stating that a deadlock has been detected is
generated.
Answer:B

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NO.10 Select two incorrect statements regarding 'DOMAIN'.
A.When defining a domain, you can add a default value and constraints to the original data.
B.Domain is a namespace existing between databases and objects such as tables.
C.A domain is created by 'CREATE DOMAIN'.
D.A domain can be used as a column type when defining a table.
E.To define a domain, both input and output functions are required.
Answer:B E

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NO.11 Select two suitable statements about sequences.
A.A sequence always returns a 4-byte INTEGER type value, so the maximum value is 2147483647.
B.A sequence is defined by 'CREATE SEQUENCE', and deleted by 'DROP SEQUENCE'.
C.Although the "nextval" function is called during a transaction, it will have no effect if that transaction is
rolled back.
D.A sequence always generates 0 or consecutive positive numbers.
E.A sequence number can be set by calling the "setval" function.
Answer:B E

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NO.12 The following is the result of executing the createlang command which is installed with PostgreSQL.
$ createlang -U postgres --list mydb Procedural Languages Name | Trusted? ---------+--------- plpgsql | yes
Select two correct statements from below.
A.The procedural language plpgsql is installed in the database mydb using the above command.
B.The procedural language plpgsql can be used in the database mydb.
C.plpgsql is a trusted language, so it can execute the OS commands on the server side.
D.plpgsql is a trusted language, so it can read/write OS files on the server side.
E.plpgsql is a safe language with restricted operations.
Answer:B E

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NO.13 The "sample" table consists of the following data: How many rows are returned by executing the
following SQL statement? SELECT DISTINCT ON (data) * FROM sample;
A.2 rows
B.3 rows
C.4 rows
D.5 rows
E.6 rows
Answer:B

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NO.14 Select the most suitable statement about PostgreSQL from below.
A.PostgreSQL is a card-type database management system.
B.PostgreSQL is a hierarchical database management system.
C.PostgreSQL is a network-type database management system.
D.PostgreSQL is an XML database management system.
E.PostgreSQL is a relational database management system.
Answer:E

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NO.15 Select two incorrect statements concerning PostgreSQL license.
A.It can be used freely.
B.It can be duplicated freely.
C.It can be freely redistributed.
D.Developers are responsible for its maintenance support.
E.Developers are only responsible for handling its crucial faults.
Answer:D E

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NO.16 Select the correct SQL statement which concatenates strings 'ABC' and 'abc' to form 'ABCabc'.
A.SELECT 'ABC' . 'abc';
B.SELECT cat('ABC', 'abc') FROM pg_operator;
C.SELECT 'ABC' 'abc';
D.SELECT 'ABC' 'abc' FROM pg_operator;
E.SELECT 'ABC' || 'abc';
Answer:E

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NO.17 The table "score" is defined as follows: gid | score -----+------ 1 | 70 1 | 60 2 | 100 3 | 80 3 | 50 The
following query was executed. Select the number of rows in the result. SELECT gid, max(score) FROM
score GROUP BY gid HAVING max(score) > 60;
A.1 row
B.2 rows
C.3 rows
D.4 rows
E.5 rows
Answer:C

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NO.18 A table named "sample" is defined as below. Select two statements which will generate a constraint
error. CREATE TABLE sample ( i INTEGER PRIMARY KEY, j INTEGER, CHECK ( i > 0 AND j < 0 ) );
A.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (1, 0);
B.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (2, -2);
C.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (3, NULL);
D.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (NULL, -4);
E.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (5, -5);
Answer:A D

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NO.19 Select one incorrect statement concerning the relational data model.
A.It expresses the real world in a collection of 2-dimensional tables called a relation.
B.It is a model based on set theory.
C.It has a logical structure independent of physical data structure.
D.It is made up of a multiple stage hierarchy where each of the set elements has parent child relationships.
E.It is a model that was proposed by E.F. Codd in 1970.
Answer:D

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NO.20 The "sample" table consists of the following data: How many rows are returned by executing the
following SQL statement? SELECT * FROM sample WHERE v ~ 'ab';
A.0 rows
B.1 row
C.2 rows
D.3 rows
E.4 rows
Answer:C

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NO.21 Select three SQL statements which return NULL.
A.SELECT 0 = NULL;
B.SELECT NULL != NULL;
C.SELECT NULL IS NULL;
D.SELECT NULL;
E.SELECT 'null'::TEXT;
Answer:A B D

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NO.22 Select two transaction isolation levels supported in PostgreSQL.
A.DIRTY READ
B.READ COMMITTED
C.REPEATABLE READ
D.PHANTOM READ
E.SERIALIZABLE
Answer:B E

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NO.23 The table "custom" is defined below. The "id" column and "introducer" column are of INTEGER type,
and the "email" column is of TEXT type. id | email | introducer ----+----------------+----------- 2 |
aaa@example.com | 1 3 | bbb@example.com | 2 4 | ccc@example.com | 2 Three SQL statements were
executed in the following order: INSERT INTO custom SELECT max(id) 1, 'ddd@example.com', 4 FROM
custom; UPDATE custom SET introducer = 999 WHERE email = 'bbb@example.com'; DELETE FROM
custom WHERE introducer NOT IN (SELECT id FROM custom); Select the number of rows in the
"custom" table after the execution.
A.0 rows
B.1 row
C.2 rows
D.3 rows
E.4 rows
Answer:C

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NO.24 PostgreSQL can use an index to access a table. Select two incorrect statements about indexes.
A.An index is created by 'CREATE INDEX', and deleted by 'DROP INDEX'.
B.By using an index effectively, searching and sorting performs faster.
C.There are B-tree, Hash, R-tree and GiST index types.
D.By creating an index, performance always improves.
E.Creating an unused index does not affect the performance of a database at all.
Answer:D E

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NO.25 SQL statements were executed in the following order: CREATE TABLE fmaster (id INTEGER
PRIMARY KEY, name TEXT); CREATE TABLE ftrans (id INTEGER REFERENCES fmaster (id), stat
INTEGER, date DATE); INSERT INTO fmaster VALUES (1, 'itemA'); INSERT INTO ftrans VALUES (1, 1,
CURRENT_DATE); Select two SQL statements that will generate an error when executed next.
A.INSERT INTO ftrans VALUES (1, 1, CURRENT_DATE);
B.INSERT INTO ftrans VALUES (2, 1, '2007-07-07');
C.UPDATE fmaster SET name = 'itemAX' WHERE id = 1;
D.UPDATE fmaster SET id = 100 WHERE id = 1;
E.UPDATE ftrans SET id = 200 WHERE id = 1;
Answer:A C

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NO.26 Table "t1" is defined as follows: CREATE TABLE t1 (value VARCHAR(5)); A set of SQL statements were
executed in the following order. Select the number of rows that table "t1" has after execution. BEGIN;
INSERT INTO t1 VALUES ('AA'); SAVEPOINT point1; INSERT INTO t1 VALUES ('BB'); SAVEPOINT
point2; INSERT INTO t1 VALUES ('CC'); ROLLBACK TO point1; INSERT INTO t1 VALUES ('DD'); END;
A.1 row
B.2 rows
C.3 rows
D.4 rows
E.0 rows
Answer:B

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NO.27 Select an incorrect statement regarding the following SQL statement. Note that "user_view" is a view.
CREATE OR REPLACE RULE rule_1 AS ON UPDATE TO user_view DO INSTEAD NOTHING;
A.It is defining a rule "rule_1".
B.It will replace "rule_1" if it already exists.
C.Executing 'UPDATE user_view' will no longer output errors.
D.When executing 'UPDATE user_view', data is updated in the table that is the origin of the view.
E.'DROP RULE rule_1 ON user_view' deletes the above definition.
Answer:D

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NO.28 Select two correct descriptions about views.
A.A view is created by 'DECLARE VIEW', and deleted by 'DROP VIEW'.
B.A view is a virtual table which does not exist.
C.A view is created to simplify complicated queries.
D.You can create a view with the same name as already existing tables.
E.A view only exists while the postmaster is running, and is deleted when the postmaster stops.
Answer:B C

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NO.29 The tables "t1" and "t2" are defined below. The tables "t1" and "t2" have columns "id" which are type of
INTEGER and column "name"s which are type of TEXT. t1 t2 The following SQL command was executed.
Select the number of rows in the result. SELECT * FROM t1 NATURAL FULL OUTER JOIN t2;
A.2 rows
B.3 rows
C.4 rows
D.5 rows
E.6 rows
Answer:D

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NO.30 Select two suitable statements about major version upgrades of PostgreSQL from below.
A.You can use the databases of the old major version.
B.To use the data from the old version, you only need to replace the program.
C.To use the data from the old version, you need to conduct a backup and restore.
D.There is a possibility of configuration parameter changes after major version upgrades.
E.Upgrade scripts can be executed while the old version of PostgreSQL is running.
Answer:C D

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NO.1 The security team is requesting the ability to control what types of BlackBerry smartphones can activate
on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server. Using the Enterprise Service Policy which three restrictions can be
implemented to control which BlackBerry smartphones can use the BlackBerry Enterprise Server?
(Choose three.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. Model Name
B. ESN Range
C. Manufacturer's Name
D. PIN Range
E. Wi-Fi Equipped
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 Which two of the following are valid Wi-Fi security protocols? (Choose two.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. WPA
B. PSK
C. Triple DES
D. AES
E. PGP
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which two BlackBerry Enterprise Server components CANNOT be installed on a separate computer?
(Choose two.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Administration Service
B. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
C. BlackBerry Router Service
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
E. BlackBerry Attachment Service
F. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 IT polices are assigned for the BlackBerry Enterprise Server at multiple levels. When there are
overlaps, what level of IT policies take priority? (Choose one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. User
B. Group
C. Server
D. Domain
E. Corporate
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements describe the SRP credentials used by the active and standby
instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server in a high availability environment? (Choose one.)
Tosee the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use a different SRP ID and
authentication key.
B. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use the same SRP ID and
authentication key.
C. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use the same SRP ID but
different authentication keys.
D. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use different SRP IDs but the
same authentication key.
E. The standby instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server is automatically assigned an SRP ID or
authentication key.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which three of the following features are new Calendar application enhancements introduced with
BlackBerry Device Software 5.0 and BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0? (Choose three.) Tosee the
Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. Free/Busy Availability Lookup
B. Forward Calendar Entries
C. Calendar Attachment Support
D. Synchronization of public and private contacts
E. Create a new calendar entry from the BlackBerry device
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 DRAG DROP
Which five components in the BlackBerry Enterprise Server are part of the attachment process when
requested from an email message on the BlackBerry smartphone?
Answer:

NO.8 What is the maximum number of total BlackBerry smartphone users (CAL's) that the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server can handle before it is recommended that a second BlackBerry Enterprise Server
instance be added to the BlackBerry Domain? (Choose one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. 50
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 2000
E. 2500
Answer: D

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NO.9 Web-based access to BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0 is a function of which component? (Choose
one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
B. BlackBerry Router Service
C. BlackBerry Controller Service
D. BlackBerry Administration Service
E. BlackBerry Collaboration Service
F. BlackBerry Mobile Data Service
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which three email platforms support BlackBerry Collaboration Service? (Choose three.)
To see the Acronym list click the ?Exhibit? button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Client for use with Microsoft Office Live Communications Server 2005 and Microsoft
Office Communications Server 2007
B. BlackBerry Client for IBM Lotus Sametime
C. BlackBerry Client for Novell GroupWise Messenger
D. BlackBerry Client for Microsoft Sharepoint
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.11 DRAG DROP
What is the correct message flow for an email message going from the mailbox to the BlackBerry
smartphone?Place the steps in the correct order by dragging them from the left to the right.
Answer:

NO.12 Why would someone login to the BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager.? (Choose one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. To add their account to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. To synchronize their S/MIME certificate
C. To set an enterprise activation password
D. To modify the BlackBerry Attachment Server settings
E. To modify their wireless PIM sync settings
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two of the following are basic functions of the BlackBerry Mobile Data Service? (Choose two.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. Allows organizations to deliver corporate data wirelessly
B. Enables the system administrator to manage BlackBerry smartphone policies
C. Incorporates the push delivery model and advanced security features for application
deployment
D. Allows BlackBerry smartphone users to manage applications installed on their BlackBerry smartphone
through the BlackBerry Desktop Manager
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 Which new feature of BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0 can be utilized to minimize or eliminate
upgrade-related down-time? (Choose one.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the
bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
B. BlackBerry Enterprise Transporter
C. BlackBerry Administration Service
D. BlackBerry Disposition Service
E. High availability
F. Application Pool
Answer: E

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NO.15 Which three of the following roles are available by default in BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0 role
based administration? (Choose three.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the
bottom of the screen.
A. Enterprise Administrator
B. Junior Help Desk
C. Senior Help Desk
D. Database Administrator
E. Senior Enterprise Administrator
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.1 How can stored routines be used to check for constraints or legality of incoming data?
A. They can make use of the VALIDATE DEFINER setting.
B. They can not be used to check for constraints or legality of data.
C. They can check and only perform an action if the incoming values match a specified value.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The stored function year_to_date is created by the 'root'@'localhost' account as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION year_to_date ()
RETURNS DECIMAL(10,2)
SQL SECURITY DEFINER
BEGIN ...
END;
Within the routine body, a number of calculations are made on data in the financials table and the
calculated value is returned. The only account which can access the financials table is 'root'@'localhost'.
If a client connects with the account 'joe'@'localhost' and calls the year_to_date function, what will
happen?
A. The function will always execute as if it was 'root'@'localhost' that invoked it since SQL
SECURITY
DEFINER has been specified.
B. The function will not execute, as 'joe'@'localhost' does not have access to the financials table
C. The function will not execute as SQL SECURITY DEFINER has been specified. It would execute if
instead SQL SECURITY INVOKER had been specified
D. If the account 'joe'@'localhost' has the EXECUTE privilege on year_to_date, the function will complete
successfully
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements are true of how access control is based?
A. It is based off of an access control table in the mysql database.
B. It is based off of grant tables in the mysql database.
C. It is based off of an access control list stored in the data directory.
D. It is based off of an access control list stored inside the .frm files of each table.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Given the following MyISAM table structure:
mysql> desc city;
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------
+
| Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra
|
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------
+
| ID | int(11) | | PRI | NULL | auto_increment
|
| Name | char(35) | | | |
|
| CountryCode | char(3) | | | |
|
| District | char(20) | | | | |
| Population | int(11) | | MUL | 0 | |
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
and the following SQL statement:
SELECT Population
FROM city
WHERE Population = 10000
ORDER BY Population
LIMIT 5;
Which of the following statements best describes how MySQL optimizer executes the query?
A. The optimizer uses the primary key column ID to read the index values, then uses the index on
Population to filter the results. The optimizer will always choose to use a unique index first, then use a
secondary index if available.
B. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search and filter the WHERE clause.
A temporary table is used to perform a filesort on the results, and then only 5 records are returned to the
client.
C. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
then returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only, because the index contains just integer values that form a leftmost prefix for
the key.
D. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
and returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only because only those columns where specified in the
SELECT statement.
E. The optimizer will never read data from disk, since MySQL caches both data and index in the key
buffer.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following best describes what the master.info file contains and how it is used?
A. It contains the values from the CHANGE MASTER statement.
B. When the slave restarts it looks for which master to use from this file.
C. It contains information about the master server, its slaves and its configuration.
D. It is used by an administrator to determine what slaves connect to the master, and other information
about the master server.
Answer: D

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NO.6 How can the SHOW PROCESSLIST command be helpful when optimizing queries?
A. It shows if a query is using an index or not.
B. It shows how the server processes a query.
C. If checked periodically, it can reveal queries that cause other queries to hang.
D. It shows the percentage of processing power that each query is using on a server.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You have been granted SELECT, INSERT and DELETE privileges on the table city in the world
database.
You log in, and exercise all your privileges without any problems.
While you are still connected and doing work, the administrator removes your DELETE privileges and
informs you by mail that you can no longer delete from table city.
Being skeptical, you decided to test your privileges and realize that you still have them all. What is are the
most likely causes of this?
A. The administrator forgot to revoke your UPDATE privilege
B. The administrator forgot to revoke your SELECT privilege
C. The administrator removed the DELETE privilege by performing an UPDATE directly on the
mysql.table_priv table
D. The administrator did not execute FLUSH PRIVILEGES
Answer: D

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NO.8 Privileges for using stored routines can be specified at the following levels:
A. Server-wide
B. Per database
C. Per routine
D. The ability to use stored procedures is not governed by the privilege system.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 Assuming that the account 'joe'@'%' does not already exist on the server, executing the statement
mysql> CREATE USER 'joe'@'%' IDENTIFIED BY 'sakila'
will have the following consequences:
A. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. However, clients cannot connect using this account
until further privileges have been assigned to the account.
B. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. Clients may connect to the server using this account,
but will not be able to access any databases, tables or stored routines
C. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. Clients may connect to the server using this account
and execute stored routines, but will not be able to access any databases or tables
D. Nothing; there is no such command as CREATE USER
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following statements are required to create a key cache of 4 MB, assign the MyISAM table
world. City to it and preload the index.?
A. mysql> SET GLOBAL city_cache.key_buffer_size = 4194304;mysql> CACHE INDEX world.City IN
city_cache;mysql> LOAD INDEX INTO CACHE world.City;
B. mysql> ALTER TABLE world.city KEY_CACHE = 4194304;
C. mysql> CREATE CACHE FOR world.City SIZE = 4194304;
D. It is not possible to create a key cache for a specific MyISAM table, only the global key cache can be
used.
Answer: A

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NO.11 When working with stored routines, which of the following are true in regards to the effect on the
amount of data exchanged between client and server?
A. They may increase the amount of data exchanged.
B. They can help reduce the amount of data exchanged.
C. They have no effect on the amount of data exchanged.
Answer: B

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NO.12 For which of the following objects can privileges be specified?
A. Host
B. Global
C. Database
D. Table
E. Column
F. Row
Answer: C

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NO.13 Consider the following:
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM Country WHERE Code = 'CAN'\G
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: Country
type: const
possible_keys: PRIMARY
key: PRIMARY
key_len: 3
ref: const
rows: 1
Extra:
Which of the following best describes the meaning of the value of the type column?
A. The table has exactly one row.
B. Several rows may be read from the table.
C. Only one row of all its rows need to be read.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What are reasons to prefer using GRANT and REVOKE statements over editing the privilege tables
directly?
A. Using GRANT and REVOKE allows the server to figure out the right tables and do all the appropriate
work
B. All grant tables in memory are immediately updated on GRANT and REVOKE
C. Making changes directly to the grant tables, one must remember to execute flush privileges to make
the changes take effect
D. GRANT and REVOKE statements allow you to do more fine-grained tuning of user privileges than
does editing the grant tables directly.
E. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following statements about the slow query log is true?
A. The slow query log will always contain just slow queries.
B. The slow query log may not always contain just slow queries.
C. The slow query log always logs more than just slow queries.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Consider the following GRANT statement:
GRANT USAGE ON *.* TO 'kofi'@'localhost' IDENTIFIED BY 'password'
What is the implications of executing that statement?
A. Kofi can access all database objects.
B. Kofi can access all his tables.
C. Kofi can display server system and status variables.
D. Kofi can grant privileges to others.
E. Kofi can access all database objects belonging to localhost.
Answer: C

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NO.17 With replication, what on the master is used to send commands to the slave?
A. The relay log.
B. The binary log.
C. The SQL Thread.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following best describes why InnoDB tables should always have primary keys and
why they should be short?
A. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate tables, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
B. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate table rows, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
C. Because InnoDB stores pointers in a log to all the primary keys and shorter keys make this log smaller.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Consider the following query:
GRANT ALL ON world.* TO 'web'@'hostname'
What privileges would this give this user?
A. All privileges including GRANT.
B. All privileges except GRANT.
C. SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE and DELETE
D. ALL can not be used when granting privileges.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following best describes how the relay log works?
A. It records the times when the slave connects to the master.
B. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is recorded in the relay log first and
processed later.
C. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is processed first and then recorded in the relay
log.
Answer: B

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Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.x)
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NO.1 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
Answer: C

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NO.2 Where does the Web Intelligence Report Server send a Web Intelligence Report after it generates the
report to make it available to users on demand?
A. Web Intelligence Job Server
B. Output File Repository Server (FRS)
C. Web Application Server (WAS)
D. Report Application Server (RAS)
Answer: C

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NO.3 You design a Crystal Report on your own computer. The report connects to an Oracle database using
ODBC. You wish to publish the report to your BusinessObjects Enterprise environment to enable users to
view it on demand. Which are requirements for viewing the report on demand? (Choose two.)
A. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
B. The Crystal Reports Job Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
C. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
D. The Crystal Job Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from running on-demand
reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You want to add another
Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports Job Server service. Using
the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager, which three tasks must you perform.?
(Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups?
(Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Which characteristic of the Web Intelligence Job Server enables it to provide stability and efficiency for
running large or complex reports?
A. Runs jobs as individual processes
B. Runs jobs using a sync-safe threads
C. Uses them ark-and-sweep garbage collection algorithm
D. Uses hash tables and smart pointers
Answer: A

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NO.8 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter (WCA)?
(Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 In which two locations can you create List of Values (LOV) objects? (Choose two.)
A. Business View Manager
B. Crystal Reports
C. Central Management Console
D. List of Values Job Server
Answer: A,B

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NO.11 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which three .NET InfoView login page properties can you configure? (Choose three.)
A. Central Management Server (CMS) name that shows on the login page
B. Default user name that appears on the login page
C. Application name that appears in the title bar of the web browser
D. Authentication type that displays on the login page
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server?
(Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.14 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object?
(Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.15 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A

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NO.16 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer: B

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NO.17 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes scheduled List of
Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
Answer: B

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NO.18 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space required for the drive
holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of the
Desktop Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,B,C,E

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