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Exam Code: C2010-651
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Applying Maximo Asset Management Solutions V3
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Exam Code: C2150-197
Exam Name: IBM Security Identity Manager V6.0 Implementation
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NO.1 Which actions are best practice for securing IBM Security Identity Manager LDAP data?
A. Disabling anonymous read access, enabling SSL communication only
B. Allow only read access to IBM Security Identity Manager LDAP
C. Run the IBM Security Identity Manager server as non-root user
D. Enabled WebSphere global security
Answer: D

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NO.2 An ITIM v5.x customer deploys password synchronization across user accounts using web
services clients to connect to ITIM v5.1 by consuming Web Services Description Language (WSDL)
files.
Which item(s) may need to be transformed or augmented when planning a migration from ITIM v5.x
to ISIM v6.0?
A. WSDL files of ISIM v6.0,ownership type of account objects
B. Service form definitions and reconciliation schedules
C. Web Services client code and service object data
D. Web Services client code
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the default location for the Tivoli Common Reporting Pack?
A. <isim home>/reporting
B. <isim home>/jdbc/lib/data
C. <isim home>/opt/reporting
D. <isim home>/extensions/ 6.0/tcr
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two items are relevant when considering an increase of the ISIM 1TDS directory
instance entry cache size? (Choose two)
A. Available memory per process in the operating system
B. Number of attributes defined in v3.modifiedschema
C. Number and size of user and accounts objects
D. Current setting of ibm-slapdSizeLimit
E. Number of indexed attributes
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 The client's IBM Security Identity Manager (ISIM) production environment consists of a two
node IBM Websphere Application cluster. Server #1 has the Websphere Deployment Manager
installed as well as one of the cluster nodes. Server #2 in the cluster just has the node installed.
If a process monitor is being configured on Server #1 how many Java processes are there related just
to Websphere?
A. 4 - Deployment Manager process, Node process, Application Server process, Messaging Server
process
B. 1- Deployment Manager and Node processes run under a single Java process
C. 3 - Deployment Manager process, Node process, Application Server process
D. 2 - Deployment Manager process and Node process
Answer: A

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NO.6 Where is the correct location for verifying database connections to ISIM v6.0?
A. WebSphere administrative console
B. ISIM database connection log
C. ISIM 6 Management Console
D. WebSphere transaction log
Answer: C

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NO.7 When gathering requirements for Identity Policy, which ID will define the rule to generate the
user ID?
A. Application Owner
B. Administrator
C. Manager
D. Auditor
Answer: B

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NO.8 The criteria to setup indexes for a Directory Server attribute is based on what?
A. The frequency of replicating objects containing the attribute to a replica.
B. The frequency of reading and writing information to / from the attribute.
C. The frequency of writing information to the attribute.
D. The frequency of reading information based on the attribute's contents.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2090-303
Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere DataStage v9.1
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Exam Code: A2180-371
Exam Name: Assessment: Web Services Development for IBM WebSphere Application Server V7.0
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Exam Code: C4040-332
Exam Name: High Availability for AIX - Technical Support and Administration -v2
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NO.1 What are the two types of application monitors that can be created?
A. Process Monitors and Custom Monitors
B. Predefined Monitors and Custom Monitors
C. System Monitors and User Defined Monitors
D. Process Monitors and User Defined Monitors
Answer: A

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NO.2 Consider the following PowerHA DLPAR configuration for a cluster, and LPAR profile on the
HMC for a standby node in that cluster:
How should the standby node profile be reconfigured so that an application runs with the minimum
hardware resources?
A. Minimum and Desired processing units = 0.1 and Maximum processing units = 0.6
B. Minimum and Desired processing units = 0.2 and Maximum processing units = 0.5
C. Minimum processing units = 0.6 and both Desired and Maximum processing units = 1.5
D. Minimum processing units = 0.5 and both Desired and Maximum processing units = 0.9
Answer: C

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NO.3 What will allow an administrator to mirror shared volume groups between two sites that are
only linked by TCP/IP?
A. GLVM Disk
B. MetroMirror Disk
C. PowerHA 7 Network Share Disk
D. Cluster Aware AIX (CAA) Share Disk
Answer: A

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NO.4 Based on the following output from a PowerHA 7 cluster node, what else can be done to
provide higher availability?
A. Enable fast failure detection.
B. Mirror rootvg across local disk.
C. Mirror caavg_private across shared disk.
D. Change non mirrored volume group disks to hot spare using the chpv command
Answer: B

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NO.5 An administrator is configuring a4-node cluster to host 3 instances of their production
application in an N+1 fallover design. Each instance will be in a separate resource group, and all 4
nodes will be participating nodes in each resource group.
Under normal circumstances each node only hosts one instance of the application. Whichever are
the first three nodes to join the cluster become production, and the fourth node will be the standby.
How must the resource group startup policy be configured to accomplish this?
A. Online On Home Node Only
B. Online On All Available Nodes
C. Online On First Available Node
D. Online Using Node Distribution Policy
Answer: D

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NO.6 A PowerHA 6 cluster has missed too many heartbeats during a large disk write operation, and
has triggered the deadman switch. Which tunable can help ensure that HA Cluster Manager
continues to run?
A. I/O Pacing and syncd frequency
B. I/O Pacing and asynchronous I/O
C. Syncd frequency and asynchronous I/O
D. Asynchronous I/O and disk queue_depth
Answer: A

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NO.7 The administrator has written a script "correct_problem.sh" that needs to be run if the
"release_vg_fs" event does not complete successfully.
What should be done to ensure the correct_problem.sh is called a maximum of 3 times if the event
failed?
A. Include a post event of correct_problem.sh and a retry counter of 3
B. Include a custom event of correct_problem.sh and a restart limit of 3
C. Include a retry command of correct_problem.sh and an event counter of 3
D. Include a recovery command of correct_problem.sh and a recovery counter of 3
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer has completed installing PowerHA 7 filesets. Which task, or tasks, should be
completed next?
A. Configure cluster topology
B. Configure cluster resources
C. Reboot each PowerHA cluster node
D. Verify and synchronize the cluster
Answer: D

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Exam Code: M2060-237
Exam Name: IBM B2B Integration-Network-Managed File Transfer Sales Mastery Test v1 (000-M237)
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Exam Code: C2040-923
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Deployment and Administration
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Exam Code: C2020-002
Exam Name: IBM Algo Financial Modeler Developer Fundamentals
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C2020-002 Study Guide Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-09-02

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NO.1 Which three would you attach to a program on a projection process inside a layer? (Choose
three.)
A. An assumption set
B. A data process
C. An aggregation report
D. A category
E. A module
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 A new AEM user has downloaded Standard Code for the first time. The user knows that they
must delete some of the code but cannot rememberwhich part(s).
Which three parts would you tell the user to keep? (Choose three.)
A. All assumption sets and data views
B. Only assumption sets and data views beginning "Template_"
C. All modules
D. Only modules specific to their region
E. All events
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 If no suffix is attached to a portfolio variable in an event variable is formula, then which value
is used?
A. The value at the end of the step
B. The value at the previous event regardless of type
C. The value at the previous event of the same type
D. The value at the start of the step
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three properties would be set for a layer in a model? (Choose three.)
A. Step length
B. Portfolio Date
C. Layer End Date
D. Model name
E. Layer name
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
The arrow in the exhibit points to something missing in the AFM Output function. What is missing?
A. Filter_Name
B. Event Name
C. Module_Name
D. Program_Name
Answer: D

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NO.6 A colleague has finished editing Standard Code and has passed it to you for development. You
notice a padlock symbol next to some of the modules.
What does the padlock mean?
A. This module has additional information attached to it.
B. This module must not be used indevelopment
C. This module is key Standard Code and must be used
D. This module is locked for editing
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the role of modules in AEM?
A. Modules are components used to specify all data variables that are being passed in from an
external source.
B. Modules are sets of variables and events for carrying out calculations in Algo Financial Modeler.
C. Modules provide a diagrammatic view of a company structure that can be visualized within Algo
Financial modeler.
D. Modules containing all the components needed to complete a set of calculations in Algo Financial
Modeler are combined.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A client has redesigned their nonprofit endowment product to pay a guaranteed 110% of Sum
Assured on death rather than just the Sum Assured assumed in Standard Code. They want you to
update the model so that it will be unaffected when any future updates of Standard Code are
copied into the workspace.
How would you do this?
A. Change the existing formula to 110%* Sum Assured.
B. Comment out the original code within the existing module and replace with 110% * Sum Assured.
C. Copy the Sum Assured variable into a blank line at the bottom of theproduct and change the code
to 110% * Sum Assured.
D. Copy the Sum Assured variable into a blank line at the bottom of the module and change the
code to 110% it Sum Assured.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2140-053
Exam Name: Rational Team Concert V3
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Exam Code: A2010-502
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices V2.1 Implementation
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Exam Code: C2080-474
Exam Name: IBM Tealeaf Customer Experience Management V8.7, Business Analysis
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NO.1 Which three does a setup project action create? (Choose three.)
A. a build definition
B. a stream and component
C. work item categories
D. team areas
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 Which three views does the default Eclipse perspective work items provide? (Choose
three.)
A. Package Explorer
B. Team Artifacts
C. Team Central
D. My Work
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 How is version control of process templates accomplished?
A. automatically by IBM Rational Team Concert on every save
B. by the naming convention of the templates
C. by keeping copies on a shared drive
D. by using IBM Rational Team Concert source control of the exported process template
Answer: D

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NO.4 For what purpose should a project administrator use a value set definition.?
A. to display all users in a project or team area that have a specific role
B. to display a full list of team members
C. to enable a query to show only those work items related to a specific category
D. to write a query that lists all the users in a team
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which three options are available for defining build schedules? (Choose three)
A. at a continuous interval in minutes on selected days
B. at a particular time for defined days
C. during defined business hours
D. only if there are newly accepted changes
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 In Scrum, what is a constantly prioritized to-do list of high-level work?
A. Sprint Backlog
B. Sprint
C. Product Backlog
D. Product
Answer: C

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NO.7 When working with public dashboards, which two factors should be considered when
determining the
best strategy for saving changes?
A. number of widgets being customized and elapsed load time
B. proper permissions and type of dashboard
C. number of people with permissions to edit and type of edits
D. dashboard template configuration and widget selection
Answer: C

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NO.8 In addition to Release, Iteration, and Daily Work Planning, which three capabilities does
IBM Rational
Team Concert Support? (Choose three.)
A. Requirements Management
B. Work Item Management
C. Source Code Management
D. Build Management
Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Code: C2180-186
Exam Name: IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V7.5.1 BPM Application Development
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Last Update: 2014-09-02

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Exam Code: A2180-606
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Business Modeler Advanced Edition V7.0, Business Analysis and Design
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A2180-606 Free download Total Q&A: 110 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-09-02

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NO.1 A BPM application developer needs to determine the Business Object Model (BOM) definition from the
following user story: The user needs the possibility to enter an order with multiple items. The total order
amount should be reachable from the performance database.
Which BOM definition should the developer create?
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
Answer: A

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NO.2 The process owner outlines the business data needed for an applicant's "submit permit application" task
in the Arena Event Permit process. Much of the data is used in other tasks within the process, so a
requirement is to carry the business data from one activity to the next until the process is completed to the
permit resolution.
How should the BPM application developer implement the process data for this requirement? Create a
complex structure type with the following data objects:
A. applicant's name, applicant's contact information, and permit number.
B. applicant's name, applicant's contact information, and date of the event.
C. applicant's name, applicant's contact information, permit number, and date of the event.
D. applicant's name, applicant's contact information, approver's signature, approve/disapprove permit,
assigned permit number, and date of the event.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Business executives of a shipping and logistic company who are not involved in the process want the
instant visibility of their business data at task level for high dollar value transactions or high value
customer transactions.
How should the BPM application developer design the system to provide the business visibility?
A. Use tracking groups
B. Use System of Record (SOR)
C. Enable Auto-Tracking
D. Track required variables individually
Answer: B

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NO.4 An order management system BPM analyst needs to know the timing interval and average activity
duration of all the tasks of the order fulfillment to identify the bottlenecks.
How should a BPM application developer quickly provide such visibility to the analyst?
A. SLA Overview scoreboard
B. Process Performance scoreboard
C. My Team Performance scoreboard
D. Custom scoreboard using tracking group
Answer: B

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NO.5 In the playback session, the process stakeholder notices that vital business data in the process is being
handled correctly for each task. However, there is a concern that the data is not typically accessed
immediately by the process participants. While the custom routing satisfies the requirement to get the task
to the right people and an escalation path helps to mitigate meeting critical SLAs, the stakeholder asks if
more can be implemented in the model to ensure quick access and completion of tasks.
How should the BPM application developer implement the flow data requirement?
A. Create a tw.local variable as a pre assignment to notify the participant end user when an activity will be
ready to be completed.
B. Create a tw.local variable type as a post assignment to notify the participant end user when an activity
is active and ready to be completed.
C. Add a pre assignment to the activity and choose the custom variable to notify the participant end user
when an activity is ready to be completed.
D. Add a post assignment to the activity and choose the custom variable to notify the participant end user
when an activity is active and ready to be completed.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M2050-242
Exam Name: IBM Commerce Solutions Supply Chain Mgmt Sales Mastery Test v1
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M2050-242 Exam Tests Total Q&A: 35 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-09-02

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Exam Code: P2170-036
Exam Name: IBM i2 iBase Support Mastery Test v1
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P2170-036 Exam Cram Total Q&A: 33 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 iBase importing Wizard. Step 1 of 5. - You can import data from a variety of sources. Which
one of
the following data sources is greyed out, unless bulk import is selected, (meaning this datasource
option can ONLY be run via bulk import)?
A. Text File
B. OLE_DB Compliant Data Source
C. XML (XML Rowset Schema) File
D. XML (iBase 8 Schema) file
E. Microsoft Excel Worksheet
F. Folder Contents
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which type of log file does the audit viewer contain?
A. security file logs and database logs
B. MSIInstaller logs
C. PC event logs
D. SQL Server activity monitor logs
Answer: A

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NO.3 To enable more verbose logging about the install process than the system event log provides,
you
must add a value to a key in the registry. The key in question is
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Policies\Microsoft\Windows\Installer, The new addition is
a string value named Logging, with the value _________________.
A. Verbose log
B. Voicewarmup
C. i2 log
D. error
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT true for creating iBase SQL server databases?
A. The name you choose for the database (idb) file in iBase will be used to generate the names of
the SQL Server databases.
B. The iBase database name (in SQL server) always contains an underscore ( _ )
C. The Audit Log database is the database name with _log added at the end
D. The name of the iBase database must all be uppercase/Capital letters
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which file extension does an iBase security file or iBase security connection file for SQL Server
have?
A. .idc
B. .ids
C. .idq
D. .ida
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following false statement about iBase Designer?
A. iBase designer allows you to add, modify and delete entity record data.
B. iBase designer allows you to design databases
C. iBase designer allows you to create new databases
D. iBase designer allows you to administer the database
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which is not correct when using the Index Service Configuration tool?
A. you will require An SQL Server installation on the machine on which you want to create the
iBase index database.
B. the index tool can connect to any SQL instance that is not on the local machine.
C. Running the Index Service Configuration tool for the first time will create a separate iBase index
database
D. The search 360 database index default name is IBaseIndexDB
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following iBase security features is not supported by iBase Scheduler, and any
restrictions imposed by this features will be ignored in iBase Scheduler:
A. System Command Access Control
B. Database Management Groups
C. Data Access Control groups
D. Folder object control
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2170-011
Exam Name: IBM Curam V6.0.4 Business Analysis and Design
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C2170-011 Real Questions Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-09-01

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Exam Code: C2010-650
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Endpoint Manager Solutions V1
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Exam Code: C2020-004
Exam Name: IBM Cognos ICM Specialist Exam
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Last Update: 2014-09-01

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NO.1 Which three of the following are components of an application tab in the Cam user
interface?Which three of the following are components of an application tab in the Curam user
interface?
A. Page group navigation bar
B. Application sections
C. Modal dialog
D. Shortcuts panel
E. Context panel
F. Navigation bar
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about sub-rule sets is true?
A. They are reusable subsets of rule list groups
B. They enable the ability to define, maintain, and execute rules over time
C. They are outcomes of passing eligibility
D. They are reusable subsets of objectives
E. They are reusable subsets of rules
Answer: E

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NO.3 Which three of the following are the three major components of the Cam user
interface?Which three of the following are the three major components of the Curam user interface?
A. Calendar icon
B. Shortcuts panel
C. Dropdown toggle
D. Application banner
E. Application tabs
F. Help icon
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.4 Which of the following allows for the testing of Classic rule sets before the rules development
process is complete?
A. Rules editor
B. Rule group
C. Rules simulation environment
D. Rule list group
E. Loader
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two of the following must be present in a Classic rule set?
A. One main rule group
B. One main rule list group
C. One main objective list group
D. One main sub-rule set
E. One main objective group
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 Which two of the following are displayed within the Smart Panel of the Curam user
interface?Which two of the following are displayed within the Smart Panel of the Curam user
interface?
A. Shortcuts
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C. Pods
D. Advisor
E. Calendar
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Cam raises which of the following to inform the workflow management system that a task has
been completed?Curam raises which of the following to inform the workflow management system
that a task has been completed?
A. Task
B. Process instance
C. Event
D. Workflow data object
E. Activity
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which three of the following are types of action menu in the Cam user interface?Which three
of the following are types of action menu in the Curam user interface?
A. Toggle
B. Banner
C. List
D. Page
E. Tab
F. Spin box
Answer: C,D,E

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