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Exam Code: CISM
Exam Name: ISACA (Certified Information Security Manager)
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Total Q&A: 633 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-28

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NO.1 Which of the following BEST describes an information security manager's role in a multidisciplinary
team that will address a new regulatory requirement regarding operational risk?
A. Ensure that all IT risks are identified
B. Evaluate the impact of information security risks
C. Demonstrate that IT mitigating controls are in place
D. Suggest new IT controls to mitigate operational risk
Answer: B

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NO.2 Acceptable risk is achieved when:
A. residual risk is minimized.
B. transferred risk is minimized.
C. control risk is minimized.
D. inherent risk is minimized.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Senior management commitment and support for information security can BEST be obtained through
presentations that:
A. use illustrative examples of successful attacks.
B. explain the technical risks to the organization.
C. evaluate the organization against best security practices.
D. tie security risks to key business objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the PRIMARY role of the information security manager in the process of information
classification within an organization?
A. Defining and ratifying the classification structure of information assets
B. Deciding the classification levels applied to the organization's information assets
C. Securing information assets in accordance with their classification
D. Checking if information assets have been classified properly
Answer: A

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NO.5 How would an information security manager balance the potentially conflicting requirements of an
international organization's security standards and local regulation?
A. Give organization standards preference over local regulations
B. Follow local regulations only
C. Make the organization aware of those standards where local regulations causes conflicts
D. Negotiate a local version of the organization standards
Answer: D

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NO.6 An internal audit has identified major weaknesses over IT processing. Which of the following should an
information security manager use to BEST convey a sense of urgency to management?
A. Security metrics reports
B. Risk assessment reports
C. Business impact analysis (BIA)
D. Return on security investment report
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is characteristic of centralized information security management?
A. More expensive to administer
B. Better adherence to policies
C. More aligned with business unit needs
D. Faster turnaround of requests
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following factors is a primary driver for information security governance that does not
require any further justification?
A. Alignment with industry best practices
B. Business continuity investment
C. Business benefits
D. Regulatory compliance
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following results from the risk assessment process would BEST assist risk management
decision making?
A. Control risk
B. Inherent risk
C. Risk exposure
D. Residual risk
Answer: D

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NO.10 A risk assessment should be conducted:
A. once a year for each business process andsubprocess.
B. every three-to-six months for critical business processes.
C. by external parties to maintain objectivity.
D. annually or whenever there is a significant change.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What will have the HIGHEST impact on standard information security governance models?
A. Number of employees
B. Distance between physical locations
C. Complexity of organizational structure
D. Organizational budget
Answer: C

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NO.12 The MOST important component of a privacy policy is:
A. notifications
B. warranties
C. liabilities
D. geographic coverage
Answer: A

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NO.13 An information security manager at a global organization that is subject to regulation by multiple
governmental jurisdictions with differing requirements should:
A. bring all locations into conformity with the aggregate requirements of all governmental jurisdictions.
B. establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required.
C. bring all locations into conformity with a generally accepted set of industry best practices.
D. establish a baseline standard incorporating those requirements that all jurisdictions have in common.
Answer: B

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NO.14 A security manager meeting the requirements for the international flow of personal data will need to
ensure:
A. a data processing agreement.
B. a data protection registration.
C. the agreement of the data subjects.
D. subject access procedures.
Answer: C

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NO.15 What would a security manager PRIMARILY utilize when proposing the implementation of a security
solution?
A. Risk assessment report
B. Technical evaluation report
C. Business case
D. Budgetary requirements
Answer: C

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NO.16 To achieve effective strategic alignment of security initiatives, it is important that:
A. steering committee leadershipbe selected by rotation.
B. inputs be obtained and consensus achieved between the major organizational units.
C. the business strategybe updated periodically.
D. procedures and standardsbe approved by all departmental heads.
Answer: B

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NO.17 In order to highlight to management the importance of integrating information security in the business
processes, a newly hired information security officer should FIRST:
A. prepare a security budget.
B. conduct a risk assessment.
C. develop an information security policy.
D. obtain benchmarking information.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following is MOST important in developing a security strategy?
A. Creating a positive business security environment
B. Understanding key business objectives
C. Having a reporting line to senior management
D. Allocating sufficient resources to information security
Answer: B

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NO.19 From an information security manager perspective, what is the immediate benefit of clearly-defined
roles and responsibilities?
A. Enhanced policy compliance
B. Improved procedure flows
C. Segregation of duties
D. Better accountability
Answer: D

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NO.20 Based on the information provided, which of the following situations presents the GREATEST
information security risk for an organization with multiple, but small, domestic processing locations?
A. Systems operation procedures are not enforced
B. Change management procedures are poor
C. Systems development is outsourced
D. Systems capacity management is not performed
Answer: B

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NO.21 Risk management programs are designed to reduce risk to:
A. a level that is too small to be measurable.
B. the point at which the benefit exceeds the expense.
C. a level that the organization is willing to accept.
D. a rate of return that equals the current cost of capital.
Answer: C

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NO.22 The PRIMARY goal in developing an information security strategy is to:
A. establish security metrics and performance monitoring.
B. educate business process owners regarding their duties.
C. ensure that legal and regulatory requirements are met.
D. support the business objectives of the organization.
Answer: D

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NO.23 Temporarily deactivating some monitoring processes, even if supported by an acceptance of
operational risk, may not be acceptable to the information security manager if:
A. it implies compliance risks.
B. short-term impact cannot be determined.
C. it violates industry security practices.
D. changes in the roles matrix cannot be detected.
Answer: A

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NO.24 Logging is an example of which type of defense against systems compromise?
A. Containment
B. Detection
C. Reaction
D. Recovery
Answer: B

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NO.25 Who in an organization has the responsibility for classifying information?
A. Data custodian
B. Database administrator
C. Information security officer
D. Data owner
Answer: D

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NO.26 Identification and prioritization of business risk enables project managers to:
A. establish implementation milestones.
B. reduce the overall amount of slack time.
C. address areas with most significance.
D. accelerate completion of critical paths.
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which of the following is responsible for legal and regulatory liability?
A. Chief security officer (CSO)
B. Chief legal counsel (CLC)
C. Board and senior management
D. Information security steering group
Answer: C

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NO.28 It is MOST important that information security architecture be aligned with which of the following?
A. Industry best practices
B. Information technology plans
C. Information security best practices
D. Business objectives and goals
Answer: D

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NO.29 Which of the following will BEST protect an organization from internal security attacks?
A. Static IP addressing
B. Internal address translation
C. Prospective employee background checks
D. Employee awareness certification program
Answer: C

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NO.30 Security technologies should be selected PRIMARILY on the basis of their:
A. ability to mitigate business risks
B. evaluations in trade publications
C. use of new and emerging technologies
D. benefits in comparison to their costs
Answer: A

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Exam CGEIT questions and answers

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Exam Code: CGEIT
Exam Name: ISACA (ISACA CGEIT Certification Practice Test)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 279 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-12

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NO.1 Which of the following processes is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring low cost changes?
A. Incident Management
B. IT Facilities Management
C. Release Management
D. Request Fulfillment
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are the business analyst for your organization and are preparing to conduct stakeholder analysis.
As part of this process you realize that you'll need several inputs.
Which one of the following is NOT an input you'll use for the conduct stakeholder analysis task?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise architecture
C. Business need
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Answer: D

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NO.3 Benchmarking is a continuous process that can be time consuming to do correctly.
Which of the following guidelines for performing benchmarking identifies the critical processes and
creates measurement techniques to grade the process?
A. Research
B. Adapt
C. Plan
D. Improve
Answer: C

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NO.4 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________is the study of how the variation (uncertainty) in the output of a mathematical model can be
apportioned, qualitatively or quantitatively, to different sources of variation in the input of a model
Answer: Sensitivity analysis

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NO.5 You are a management consultant. WebTech Inc., an e-commerce organization, hires you to analyze
its SWOT. Which of the following factors will you not consider for the SWOT analysis?
A. Bandwidth
B. Pricing
C. Product
D. Promotion
Answer: A

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NO.6 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. An ___________ is a resource, process, product, computing
infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected.
Answer: asset

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NO.7 Your organization mainly focuses on the production of bicycles for selling it around the world. In
addition to this, the organization also produces scooters. Management wants to restrict its line of
production to bicycles. Therefore, it decides to sell the scooter production department to another
competitor. Which of the following terms best describes the sale of the scooter production department to
your competitor?
A. Corporate restructure
B. Divestiture
C. Rightsizing
D. Outsourcing
Answer: B

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NO.8 Mark is the project manager of the BFL project for his organization. He and the project team are
creating a probability and impact matrix using RAG rating. There is some confusion and disagreement
among the project team as to how a certain risk is important and priority for attention should be managed.
Where can Mark determine the priority of a risk given its probability and impact?
A. Risk response plan
B. Look-up table
C. Project sponsor
D. Risk management plan
Answer: B

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NO.9 You are the project manager of the NHQ project for your company. You are working with your project
team to complete a risk audit. A recent issue that your project team responded to, and management
approved, was to increase the project schedule because there was risk surrounding the installation time
of a new material. Your logic was that with the expanded schedule there would be time to complete the
installation without affecting downstream project activities. What type of risk response is being audited in
this scenario?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Parkinson's Law
D. Lag Time
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics
including cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality?
A. Agreement
B. COBIT
C. Service Improvement Plan
D. Benchmarking
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management drives better
decisions by providing real-time portfolio performance information in personalized views, such as
cost/benefit summary, risk versus reward, ROI versus alignment, and balance bubble charts?
A. Workflow, Process Management, Tracking and Authorization
B. Portfolio Management
C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards
D. Portfolio What-If Planning
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following are the roles of a CEO in the Resource management framework?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Organizing and facilitating IT strategic implementations
B. Establishment of business priorities & allocation of resources for IT performance
C. Overseeing the aggregate IT funding
D. Capitalization on knowledge & information
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 Beth is a project team member on the JHG Project. Beth has added extra features to the project and
this has introduced new risks to the project work. The project manager of the JHG project elects to
remove the features Beth has added. The process of removing the extra features to remove the risks is
called what?
A. Corrective action
B. Preventive action
C. Scope creep
D. Defect repair
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following processes is described in the statement below?
"This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project
objectives."
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Monitor and Control Risks
Answer: C

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NO.15 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________models address specifications, requirements, design, verification and validation, and
maintenance activities.
Answer: Life cycle

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NO.16 You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis.
Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just
completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative
risk analysis is.?
A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing
and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
B. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on
probability and impact of each risk event.
C. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highest
impact on the project objectives.
D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall
project objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.17 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate word.
________is also referred to as corporate governance, and covers issues such as board structures, roles
and executive remuneration.
Answer: Conformance

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NO.18 What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S.
Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing
Working Group?
A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring
B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing
C. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring
D. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
Answer: D

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NO.19 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the
management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses
in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Historical information
D. Rolling wave planning
Answer: B

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NO.20 DRAG DROP
Val IT is a suite of documents that provide a framework for the governance of IT investments, produced by
the IT Governance Institute (ITGI). It is a formal statement of principles and processes for IT portfolio
management. Drag and drop the correct domain ('Portfolio management') next to the IT processes
defined by Val IT.
Answer:

NO.21 You are the project manager of a large project that will last four years. In this project, you would like to
model the risk based on its distribution, impact, and other factors.
There are three modeling techniques that a project manager can use to include both event-oriented and
project oriented analysis. Which modeling technique does NOT provide event-oriented and project
oriented analysis for identified risks?
A. Modeling and simulation
B. Expected monetary value
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Jo-Hari Window
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the
market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?
A. Project gap
B. Competitive gap
C. Usage gap
D. Product gap
Answer: C

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NO.23 Your project spans the entire organization. You would like to assess the risk of the project but are
worried that some of the managers involved in the project could affect the outcome of any risk
identification meeting. Your worry is based on the fact that some employees would not want to publicly
identify risk events that could make their supervisors look bad. You would like a method that would allow
participants to anonymously identify risk events. What risk identification method could you use?
A. Delphi technique
B. Isolated pilot groups
C. SWOT analysis
D. Root cause analysis
Answer: A

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NO.24 An organization supports both programs and projects for various industries. What is a portfolio?
A. A portfolio describes all of the monies that are invested in the organization.
B. A portfolio is the total amount of funds that have been invested in programs, projects, and operations.
C. A portfolio describes any project or program within one industry or application area.
D. A portfolio describes the organization of related projects, programs, and operations.
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of the following is a process that occurs due to mergers, outsourcing or changing business
needs?
A. Voluntary exit
B. Plant closing
C. Involuntary exit
D. Outplacement
Answer: C

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NO.26 You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation.
You need to identify the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will
help you in this?
A. Estimate activity duration
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Qualitative analysis
D. Risk identification
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which of the following is NOT a sub-process of Service Portfolio Management?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Business Planning Data
C. Strategic Planning
D. Strategic Service Assessment
E. Service Strategy Definition
Answer: B

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NO.28 You are the project manager for your organization and you are working with Thomas, a project team
member. You and Thomas have been working on a specific risk response for a probable risk event in the
project. Thomas is empowered with a risk response and will control all aspects of the identified risk
response in which a particular risk event will happen within the project. What title, in regard to risk, is
bestowed on Thomas?
A. Risk coordinator
B. Risk expeditor
C. Risk owner
D. Risk team leader
Answer: C

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NO.29 Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several
subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process.
During this process she and the project team uncover several risks events that were not previously
identified. What should Jenny do with these risk events?
A. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to.
B. The events should be entered into the risk register.
C. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis.
D. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: B

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NO.30 Mary is the business analyst for your organization. She asks you what the purpose of the assess
capability gaps task is. Which of the following is the best response to give Mary?
A. It identifies the causal factors that are contributing to an effect the solution will solve.
B. It identifies new capabilities required by the organization to meet the business need.
C. It describes the ends that the organization wants to improve.
D. It identifies the skill gaps in the existing resources.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: CGEIT
Exam Name: ISACA (ISACA CGEIT Certification Practice Test)
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Total Q&A: 279 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-14

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NO.1 Which of the following processes is described in the statement below?
"This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project
objectives."
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Monitor and Control Risks
Answer: C

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NO.2 Benchmarking is a continuous process that can be time consuming to do correctly.
Which of the following guidelines for performing benchmarking identifies the critical processes and
creates measurement techniques to grade the process?
A. Research
B. Adapt
C. Plan
D. Improve
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are the business analyst for your organization and are preparing to conduct stakeholder analysis.
As part of this process you realize that you'll need several inputs.
Which one of the following is NOT an input you'll use for the conduct stakeholder analysis task?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise architecture
C. Business need
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management drives better
decisions by providing real-time portfolio performance information in personalized views, such as
cost/benefit summary, risk versus reward, ROI versus alignment, and balance bubble charts?
A. Workflow, Process Management, Tracking and Authorization
B. Portfolio Management
C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards
D. Portfolio What-If Planning
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT a sub-process of Service Portfolio Management?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Business Planning Data
C. Strategic Planning
D. Strategic Service Assessment
E. Service Strategy Definition
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are the project manager of a large project that will last four years. In this project, you would like to
model the risk based on its distribution, impact, and other factors.
There are three modeling techniques that a project manager can use to include both event-oriented and
project oriented analysis. Which modeling technique does NOT provide event-oriented and project
oriented analysis for identified risks?
A. Modeling and simulation
B. Expected monetary value
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Jo-Hari Window
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your organization mainly focuses on the production of bicycles for selling it around the world. In
addition to this, the organization also produces scooters. Management wants to restrict its line of
production to bicycles. Therefore, it decides to sell the scooter production department to another
competitor. Which of the following terms best describes the sale of the scooter production department to
your competitor?
A. Corporate restructure
B. Divestiture
C. Rightsizing
D. Outsourcing
Answer: B

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NO.8 DRAG DROP
Val IT is a suite of documents that provide a framework for the governance of IT investments, produced by
the IT Governance Institute (ITGI). It is a formal statement of principles and processes for IT portfolio
management. Drag and drop the correct domain ('Portfolio management') next to the IT processes
defined by Val IT.
Answer:

NO.9 You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation.
You need to identify the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will
help you in this?
A. Estimate activity duration
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Qualitative analysis
D. Risk identification
Answer: C

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NO.10 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. An ___________ is a resource, process, product, computing
infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected.
Answer: asset

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NO.11 Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the
market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?
A. Project gap
B. Competitive gap
C. Usage gap
D. Product gap
Answer: C

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NO.12 You are the project manager of the NHQ project for your company. You are working with your project
team to complete a risk audit. A recent issue that your project team responded to, and management
approved, was to increase the project schedule because there was risk surrounding the installation time
of a new material. Your logic was that with the expanded schedule there would be time to complete the
installation without affecting downstream project activities. What type of risk response is being audited in
this scenario?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Parkinson's Law
D. Lag Time
Answer: A

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NO.13 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________is the study of how the variation (uncertainty) in the output of a mathematical model can be
apportioned, qualitatively or quantitatively, to different sources of variation in the input of a model
Answer: Sensitivity analysis

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NO.14 Which of the following processes is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring low cost changes?
A. Incident Management
B. IT Facilities Management
C. Release Management
D. Request Fulfillment
Answer: D

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NO.15 You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis.
Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just
completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative
risk analysis is.?
A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing
and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
B. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on
probability and impact of each risk event.
C. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highest
impact on the project objectives.
D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall
project objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics
including cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality?
A. Agreement
B. COBIT
C. Service Improvement Plan
D. Benchmarking
Answer: D

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NO.17 What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S.
Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing
Working Group?
A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring
B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing
C. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring
D. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
Answer: D

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NO.18 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________models address specifications, requirements, design, verification and validation, and
maintenance activities.
Answer: Life cycle

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NO.19 Your project spans the entire organization. You would like to assess the risk of the project but are
worried that some of the managers involved in the project could affect the outcome of any risk
identification meeting. Your worry is based on the fact that some employees would not want to publicly
identify risk events that could make their supervisors look bad. You would like a method that would allow
participants to anonymously identify risk events. What risk identification method could you use?
A. Delphi technique
B. Isolated pilot groups
C. SWOT analysis
D. Root cause analysis
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following is a process that occurs due to mergers, outsourcing or changing business
needs?
A. Voluntary exit
B. Plant closing
C. Involuntary exit
D. Outplacement
Answer: C

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NO.21 Mary is the business analyst for your organization. She asks you what the purpose of the assess
capability gaps task is. Which of the following is the best response to give Mary?
A. It identifies the causal factors that are contributing to an effect the solution will solve.
B. It identifies new capabilities required by the organization to meet the business need.
C. It describes the ends that the organization wants to improve.
D. It identifies the skill gaps in the existing resources.
Answer: B

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NO.22 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the
management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses
in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Historical information
D. Rolling wave planning
Answer: B

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NO.23 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate word.
________is also referred to as corporate governance, and covers issues such as board structures, roles
and executive remuneration.
Answer: Conformance

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NO.24 Beth is a project team member on the JHG Project. Beth has added extra features to the project and
this has introduced new risks to the project work. The project manager of the JHG project elects to
remove the features Beth has added. The process of removing the extra features to remove the risks is
called what?
A. Corrective action
B. Preventive action
C. Scope creep
D. Defect repair
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which of the following are the roles of a CEO in the Resource management framework?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Organizing and facilitating IT strategic implementations
B. Establishment of business priorities & allocation of resources for IT performance
C. Overseeing the aggregate IT funding
D. Capitalization on knowledge & information
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.26 You are a management consultant. WebTech Inc., an e-commerce organization, hires you to analyze
its SWOT. Which of the following factors will you not consider for the SWOT analysis?
A. Bandwidth
B. Pricing
C. Product
D. Promotion
Answer: A

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NO.27 Mark is the project manager of the BFL project for his organization. He and the project team are
creating a probability and impact matrix using RAG rating. There is some confusion and disagreement
among the project team as to how a certain risk is important and priority for attention should be managed.
Where can Mark determine the priority of a risk given its probability and impact?
A. Risk response plan
B. Look-up table
C. Project sponsor
D. Risk management plan
Answer: B

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NO.28 You are the project manager for your organization and you are working with Thomas, a project team
member. You and Thomas have been working on a specific risk response for a probable risk event in the
project. Thomas is empowered with a risk response and will control all aspects of the identified risk
response in which a particular risk event will happen within the project. What title, in regard to risk, is
bestowed on Thomas?
A. Risk coordinator
B. Risk expeditor
C. Risk owner
D. Risk team leader
Answer: C

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NO.29 An organization supports both programs and projects for various industries. What is a portfolio?
A. A portfolio describes all of the monies that are invested in the organization.
B. A portfolio is the total amount of funds that have been invested in programs, projects, and operations.
C. A portfolio describes any project or program within one industry or application area.
D. A portfolio describes the organization of related projects, programs, and operations.
Answer: D

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NO.30 Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several
subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process.
During this process she and the project team uncover several risks events that were not previously
identified. What should Jenny do with these risk events?
A. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to.
B. The events should be entered into the risk register.
C. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis.
D. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: B

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NO.1 The use of a GANTT chart can:
A. aid in scheduling project tasks.
B. determine project checkpoints.
C. ensure documentation standards.
D. direct the post-implementation review.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A GANTT chart is used in project control. It may aid in the identification of needed checkpoints but its
primary use is in scheduling. It will not ensure the completion of documentation nor will it provide direction
for the post-implementation review.

NO.2 Which of the following network configuration options contains a direct link between any two host
machines?
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Completely connected (mesh)
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A completely connected mesh configuration creates a direct link between any two host machines.
Incorrect answers:
A. A bus configuration links all stations along one transmission line.
B. A ring configuration forms a circle, and all stations are attached to a point on the transmission circle.
D. In a star configuration each station is linked directly to a main hub.

NO.3 Which of the following is MOST likely to result from a business process reengineering (BPR) project?
A. An increased number of people using technology
B. Significant cost savings, through a reduction in the complexity of information technology
C. A weaker organizational structures and less accountability
D. Increased information protection (IP) risk will increase
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A BPR project more often leads to an increased number of people using technology, and this would be a
cause for concern. Incorrect answers:
B. As BPR is often technology oriented, and this technology is usually more complex and volatile than in
the past, cost savings do not often materialize in this area.
D. There is no reason for IP to conflict with a BPR project, unless the project is not run properly.

NO.4 Which of the following is a telecommunication device that translates data from digital form to analog
form and back to digital?
A. Multiplexer
B. Modem
C. Protocol converter
D. Concentrator
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A modem is a device that translates data from digital to analog and back to digital.

NO.5 An IS auditor reviewing the key roles and responsibilities of the database administrator (DBA) is
LEAST likely to expect the job description of the DBA to include:
A. defining the conceptual schema.
B. defining security and integrity checks.
C. liaising with users in developing data model.
D. mapping data model with the internal schema.
Answer: D Explanation:
A DBA only in rare instances should be mapping data elements from the data model to the internal
schema (physical data storage definitions). To do so would eliminate data independence for application
systems. Mapping of the data model occurs with the conceptual schema since the conceptual schema
represents the enterprisewide view of data within an organization and is the basis for deriving an end-user
department data model.

NO.6 Which of the following BEST describes the necessary documentation for an enterprise product
reengineering (EPR) software installation?
A. Specific developments only
B. Business requirements only
C. All phases of the installation must be documented
D. No need to develop a customer specific documentation
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A global enterprise product reengineering (EPR) software package can be applied to a business to
replace, simplify and improve the quality of IS processing. Documentation is intended to help understand
how, why and which solutions that have been selected and implemented, and therefore must be specific
to the project. Documentation is also intended to support quality assurance and must be comprehensive.

NO.7 Which of the following would be the BEST method for ensuring that critical fields in a master record
have been updated properly?
A. Field checks
B. Control totals
C. Reasonableness checks
D. A before-and-after maintenance report
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A before-and-after maintenance report is the best answer because a visual review would provide the most
positive verification that updating was proper.

NO.8 Which of the following hardware devices relieves the central computer from performing network
control, format conversion and message handling tasks?
A. Spool
B. Cluster controller
C. Protocol converter
D. Front end processor
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A front-end processor is a hardware device that connects all communication lines to a central computer to
relieve the central computer.

NO.9 Which of the following tests is an IS auditor performing when a sample of programs is selected to
determine if the source and object versions are the same?
A. A substantive test of program library controls
B. A compliance test of program library controls
C. A compliance test of the program compiler controls
D. A substantive test of the program compiler controls
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A compliance test determines if controls are operating as designed and are being applied in a manner that
complies with management policies and procedures. For example, if the IS auditor is concerned whether
program library controls are working properly, the IS auditor might select a sample of programs to
determine if the source and object versions are the same. In other words, the broad objective of any
compliance test is to provide auditors with reasonable assurance that a particular control on which the
auditor plans to rely is operating as the auditor perceived it in the preliminary evaluation.

NO.10 A sequence of bits appended to a digital document that is used to secure an e-mail sent through the
Internet is called a:
A. digest signature.
B. electronic signature.
C. digital signature.
D. hash signature.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A digital signature through the private cryptographic key authenticates a transmission from a sender
through the private cryptographic key. It is a string of bits that uniquely represent another string of bits, a
digital document. An electronic signature refers to the string of bits that digitally represents a handwritten
signature captured by a computer system when a human applies it on an electronic pen pad, connected
to the system.

NO.11 Which of the following data validation edits is effective in detecting transposition and transcription
errors?
A. Range check
B. Check digit
C. Validity check
D. Duplicate check
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A check digit is a numeric value that is calculated mathematically and is appended to data to
ensure that the original data have not been altered or an incorrect, but valid, value substituted.
This control is effective in detecting transposition and transcription errors.
Incorrect answers:
A. A range check is checking data that matches a predetermined range of values.
C. A validity check is programmed checking of the data validity in accordance with predetermined criteria.
D. In a duplicate check, new or fresh transactions are matched to those previously entered to ensure that
they are not already in the system.

NO.12 Which of the following types of data validation editing checks is used to determine if a field contains
data, and not zeros or blanks?
A. Check digit
B. Existence check
C. Completeness check
D. Reasonableness check
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A completeness check is used to determine if a field contains data and not zeros or blanks. Incorrect
answers:
A. A check digit is a digit calculated mathematically to ensure original data was not altered.
B. An existence check also checks entered data for agreement to predetermined criteria.
D. A reasonableness check matches input to predetermined reasonable limits or occurrence rates.

NO.13 Which of the following is a dynamic analysis tool for the purpose of testing software modules?
A. Blackbox test
B. Desk checking
C. Structured walk-through
D. Design and code
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A blackbox test is a dynamic analysis tool for testing software modules. During the testing of software
modules a blackbox test works first in a cohesive manner as one single unit/entity, consisting of numerous
modules and second, with the user data that flows across software modules. In some cases, this even
drives the software behavior.
Incorrect answers:
In choices B, C and D, the software (design or code) remains static and somebody simply closely
examines it by applying his/her mind, without actually activating the software. Hence, these cannot be
referred to as dynamic analysis tools.

NO.14 A LAN administrator normally would be restricted from:
A. having end-user responsibilities.
B. reporting to the end-user manager.
C. having programming responsibilities.
D. being responsible for LAN security administration.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A LAN administrator should not have programming responsibilities but may have end- user
responsibilities. The LAN administrator may report to the director of the IPF or, in a decentralized
operation, to the end-user manager. In small organizations, the LAN administrator also may be
responsible for security administration over the LAN.

NO.15 A data administrator is responsible for: A. maintaining database system software.
B. defining data elements, data names and their relationship.
C. developing physical database structures.
D. developing data dictionary system software.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A data administrator is responsible for defining data elements, data names and their relationship. Choices
A, C and D are functions of a database administrator (DBA)

NO.16 IS management has decided to rewrite a legacy customer relations system using fourth generation
languages (4GLs). Which of the following risks is MOST often associated with system development using
4GLs?
A. Inadequate screen/report design facilities
B. Complex programming language subsets
C. Lack of portability across operating systems
D. Inability to perform data intensive operations
Answer: D

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Explanation:
4.Ls are usually not suitable for data intensive operations. Instead, they are used mainly for graphic user
interface (GUI) design or as simple query/report generators.
Incorrect answers:
A, B. Screen/report design facilities are one of the main advantages of 4GLs, and 4GLs have simple
programming language subsets.
C. Portability is also one of the main advantages of 4GLs.

NO.17 In an EDI process, the device which transmits and receives electronic documents is the:
A. communications handler.
B. EDI translator.
C. application interface.
D. EDI interface.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A communications handler transmits and receives electronic documents between trading partners
and/or wide area networks (WANs).
Incorrect answers:
B. An EDI translator translates data between the standard format and a trading partner's proprietary
format.
C. An application interface moves electronic transactions to, or from, the application system and performs
data mapping.
D. An EDI interface manipulates and routes data between the application system and the communications
handler.

NO.18 A number of system failures are occurring when corrections to previously detected errors are
resubmitted for acceptance testing. This would indicate that the maintenance team is probably not
adequately performing which of the following types of testing?
A. Unit testing
B. Integration testing
C. Design walk-throughs
D. Configuration management
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A common system maintenance problem is that errors are often corrected quickly (especially when
deadlines are tight) , units are tested by the programmer, and then transferred to the acceptance test area.
This often results in system problems that should have been detected during integration or system testing.
Integration testing aims at ensuring that the major components of the system interface correctly.

NO.19 A database administrator is responsible for:
A. defining data ownership.
B. establishing operational standards for the data dictionary.
C. creating the logical and physical database.
D. establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and security.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A database administrator is responsible for creating and controlling the logical and physical database.
Defining data ownership resides with the head of the user department or top management if the data is
common to the organization. IS management and the data administrator are responsible for establishing
operational standards for the data dictionary. Establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and
security in line with the corporate security policy is a function of the security administrator.

NO.20 Which of the following systems-based approaches would a financial processing company employ to
monitor spending patterns to identify abnormal patterns and report them?
A. A neural network
B. Database management software
C. Management information systems
D. Computer assisted audit techniques
Answer: A Explanation:
A neural network will monitor and learn patterns, reporting exceptions for investigation. Incorrect answers:
B. Database management software is a method of storing and retrieving data.
C. Management information systems provide management statistics but do not normally have a
monitoring and detection function.
D. Computer-assisted audit techniques detect specific situations, but are not intended to learn patterns
and detect abnormalities.

NO.21 Structured programming is BEST described as a technique that:
A. provides knowledge of program functions to other programmers via peer reviews.
B. reduces the maintenance time of programs by the use of small-scale program modules.
C. makes the readable coding reflect as closely as possible the dynamic execution of the program.
D. controls the coding and testing of the high-level functions of the program in the development process.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A characteristic of structured programming is smaller, workable units. Structured programming has
evolved because smaller, workable units are easier to maintain. Structured programming is a style of
programming which restricts the kinds of control structures. This limitation is not crippling. Any program
can be written with allowed control structures. Structured programming is sometimes referred to as
go-to-less programming, since a go-to statement is not allowed. This is perhaps the most well known
restriction of the style, since go-to statements were common at the time structured programming was
becoming more popular. Statement labels also become unnecessary, except in languages where
subroutines are identified by labels.

NO.22 Which of the following devices extends the network and has the capacity to store frames and act as a
storage and forward device?
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. Repeater
D. Gateway
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A bridge connects two separate networks to form a logical network (e.g., joining an ethernet and token
network) and has the storage capacity to store frames and act as a storage and forward device. Bridges
operate at the OSI data link layer by examining the media access control header of a data packet.
Incorrect answers:
A. Routers are switching devices that operate at the OSI network layer by examining network addresses
(i.e., routing information encoded in an IP packet). The router, by examining the IP address, can make
intelligent decisions in directing the packet to its destination.
C. Repeaters amplify transmission signals to reach remote devices by taking a signal from a LAN,
reconditioning and retiming it, and sending it to another. This functionality is hardware encoded and
occurs at the OSI physical layer.
D. Gateways provide access paths to foreign networks.

NO.23 A critical function of a firewall is to act as a:
A. special router that connects the Internet to a LAN.
B. device for preventing authorized users from accessing the LAN.
C. server used to connect authorized users to private trusted network resources.
D. proxy server to increase the speed of access to authorized users.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A firewall is a set of related programs, located at a network gateway server, that protects the resources of
a private network from users of other networks. An enterprise with an intranet that allows its workers
access to the wider Internet installs a firewall to prevent outsiders from accessing its own private data
resources and for controlling the outside resources to which its own users have access. Basically, a
firewall, working closely with a router program, filters all network packets to determine whether or not to
forward them toward their destination. A firewall includes or works with a proxy server that makes network
requests on behalf of workstation users. A firewall is often installed in a specially designated computer
separate from the rest of the network so no incoming request can get directed to private network
resources.

NO.24 Which of the following translates e-mail formats from one network to another so that the message can
travel through all the networks?
A. Gateway
B. Protocol converter
C. Front-end communication processor
D. Concentrator/multiplexor
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A gateway performs the job of translating e-mail formats from one network to another so messages can
make their way through all the networks.
Incorrect answers:
B. A protocol converter is a hardware device that converts between two different types of transmissions,
such as asynchronous and synchronous transmissions.
C. A front-end communication processor connects all network communication lines to a central computer
to relieve the central computer from performing network control, format conversion and message handling
tasks.
D. A concentrator/multiplexor is a device used for combining several lower-speed channels into a
higher-speed channel.

NO.25 The MOST significant level of effort for business continuity planning (BCP) generally is required during
the:
A. testing stage.
B. evaluation stage.
C. maintenance stage.
D. early stages of planning.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Company.com in the early stages of a BCP will incur the most significant level of program development
effort, which will level out as the BCP moves into maintenance, testing and evaluation stages. It is during
the planning stage that an IS auditor will play an important role in obtaining senior management's
commitment to resources and assignment of BCP responsibilities.

NO.26 An offsite information processing facility having electrical wiring, air conditioning and flooring, but no
computer or communications equipment is a:
A. cold site.
B. warm site.
C. dial-up site.
D. duplicate processing facility.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A cold site is ready to receive equipment but does not offer any components at the site in advance of the
need.
Incorrect answers:
B. A warm site is an offsite backup facility that is configured partially with network connections and
selected peripheral equipment, such as disk and tape units, controllers and CPUs, to operate an
information processing facility.
D. A duplicate information processing facility is a dedicated, self-developed recovery site that can back up
critical applications.

NO.27 A call-back system requires that a user with an id and password call a remote server through a dial-up
line, then the server disconnects and: A. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and
password using a telephone number from its database.
B. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number provided
by the user during this connection.
C. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and
password using its database.
D. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and
password using the sender's database.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A call-back system in a net centric environment would mean that a user with an id and password calls a
remote server through a dial-up line first, and then the server disconnects and dials back to the user
machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number from its database. Although the
server can depend upon its own database, it cannot know the authenticity of the dialer when the user dials
again. The server cannot depend upon the sender's database to dial back as the same could be
manipulated.

NO.28 A hub is a device that connects:
A. two LANs using different protocols.
B. a LAN with a WAN.
C. a LAN with a metropolitan area network (MAN).
D. two segments of a single LAN.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A hub is a device that connects two segments of a single LAN. A hub is a repeater. It provides transparent
connectivity to users on all segments of the same LAN. It is a level 1 device. Incorrect answers:
A. A bridge operates at level 2 of the OSI layer and is used to connect two LANs using different protocols
(e.g., joining an ethernet and token network) to form a logical network.
B. A gateway, which is a level 7 device, is used to connect a LAN to a WAN.
C. A LAN is connected with a MAN using a router, which operates in the network layer.

NO.29 To affix a digital signature to a message, the sender must first create a message digest by applying a
cryptographic hashing algorithm against:
A. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender's private key.
B. any arbitrary part of the message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender's
private key.
C. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message using the sender's private key.
D. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message along with the message digest using the
sender's private key.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A digital signature is a cryptographic method that ensures data integrity, authentication of the message,
and non-repudiation. To ensure these, the sender first creates a message digest by applying a
cryptographic hashing algorithm against the entire message and thereafter enciphers the message digest
using the sender's private key. A message digest is created by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm
against the entire message not on any arbitrary part of the message. After creating the message digest,
only the message digest is enciphered using the sender's private key, not the message.

NO.30 Which of the following is a benefit of using callback devices?
A. Provide an audit trail
B. Can be used in a switchboard environment
C. Permit unlimited user mobility
D. Allow call forwarding
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A callback feature hooks into the access control software and logs all authorized and unauthorized access
attempts, permitting the follow-up and further review of potential breaches. Call forwarding (choice D) is a
means of potentially bypassing callback control. By dialing through an authorized phone number from an
unauthorized phone number, a perpetrator can gain computer access. This vulnerability can be controlled
through callback systems that are available.

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NO.1 Which of the following devices extends the network and has the capacity to store frames and act as a
storage and forward device?
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. Repeater
D. Gateway
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A bridge connects two separate networks to form a logical network (e.g., joining an ethernet and token
network) and has the storage capacity to store frames and act as a storage and forward device. Bridges
operate at the OSI data link layer by examining the media access control header of a data packet.
Incorrect answers:
A. Routers are switching devices that operate at the OSI network layer by examining network addresses
(i.e., routing information encoded in an IP packet). The router, by examining the IP address, can make
intelligent decisions in directing the packet to its destination.
C. Repeaters amplify transmission signals to reach remote devices by taking a signal from a LAN,
reconditioning and retiming it, and sending it to another. This functionality is hardware encoded and
occurs at the OSI physical layer.
D. Gateways provide access paths to foreign networks.

NO.2 An IS auditor reviewing the key roles and responsibilities of the database administrator (DBA) is
LEAST likely to expect the job description of the DBA to include:
A. defining the conceptual schema.
B. defining security and integrity checks.
C. liaising with users in developing data model.
D. mapping data model with the internal schema.
Answer: D Explanation:
A DBA only in rare instances should be mapping data elements from the data model to the internal
schema (physical data storage definitions). To do so would eliminate data independence for application
systems. Mapping of the data model occurs with the conceptual schema since the conceptual schema
represents the enterprisewide view of data within an organization and is the basis for deriving an end-user
department data model.

NO.3 Which of the following would be the BEST method for ensuring that critical fields in a master record
have been updated properly?
A. Field checks
B. Control totals
C. Reasonableness checks
D. A before-and-after maintenance report
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A before-and-after maintenance report is the best answer because a visual review would provide the most
positive verification that updating was proper.

NO.4 Which of the following is a benefit of using callback devices?
A. Provide an audit trail
B. Can be used in a switchboard environment
C. Permit unlimited user mobility
D. Allow call forwarding
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A callback feature hooks into the access control software and logs all authorized and unauthorized access
attempts, permitting the follow-up and further review of potential breaches. Call forwarding (choice D) is a
means of potentially bypassing callback control. By dialing through an authorized phone number from an
unauthorized phone number, a perpetrator can gain computer access. This vulnerability can be controlled
through callback systems that are available.

NO.5 Which of the following is MOST likely to result from a business process reengineering (BPR) project?
A. An increased number of people using technology
B. Significant cost savings, through a reduction in the complexity of information technology
C. A weaker organizational structures and less accountability
D. Increased information protection (IP) risk will increase
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A BPR project more often leads to an increased number of people using technology, and this would be a
cause for concern. Incorrect answers:
B. As BPR is often technology oriented, and this technology is usually more complex and volatile than in
the past, cost savings do not often materialize in this area.
D. There is no reason for IP to conflict with a BPR project, unless the project is not run properly.

NO.6 A critical function of a firewall is to act as a:
A. special router that connects the Internet to a LAN.
B. device for preventing authorized users from accessing the LAN.
C. server used to connect authorized users to private trusted network resources.
D. proxy server to increase the speed of access to authorized users.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A firewall is a set of related programs, located at a network gateway server, that protects the resources of
a private network from users of other networks. An enterprise with an intranet that allows its workers
access to the wider Internet installs a firewall to prevent outsiders from accessing its own private data
resources and for controlling the outside resources to which its own users have access. Basically, a
firewall, working closely with a router program, filters all network packets to determine whether or not to
forward them toward their destination. A firewall includes or works with a proxy server that makes network
requests on behalf of workstation users. A firewall is often installed in a specially designated computer
separate from the rest of the network so no incoming request can get directed to private network
resources.

NO.7 Which of the following hardware devices relieves the central computer from performing network
control, format conversion and message handling tasks?
A. Spool
B. Cluster controller
C. Protocol converter
D. Front end processor
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A front-end processor is a hardware device that connects all communication lines to a central computer to
relieve the central computer.

NO.8 In an EDI process, the device which transmits and receives electronic documents is the:
A. communications handler.
B. EDI translator.
C. application interface.
D. EDI interface.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A communications handler transmits and receives electronic documents between trading partners
and/or wide area networks (WANs).
Incorrect answers:
B. An EDI translator translates data between the standard format and a trading partner's proprietary
format.
C. An application interface moves electronic transactions to, or from, the application system and performs
data mapping.
D. An EDI interface manipulates and routes data between the application system and the communications
handler.

NO.9 A hub is a device that connects:
A. two LANs using different protocols.
B. a LAN with a WAN.
C. a LAN with a metropolitan area network (MAN).
D. two segments of a single LAN.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A hub is a device that connects two segments of a single LAN. A hub is a repeater. It provides transparent
connectivity to users on all segments of the same LAN. It is a level 1 device. Incorrect answers:
A. A bridge operates at level 2 of the OSI layer and is used to connect two LANs using different protocols
(e.g., joining an ethernet and token network) to form a logical network.
B. A gateway, which is a level 7 device, is used to connect a LAN to a WAN.
C. A LAN is connected with a MAN using a router, which operates in the network layer.

NO.10 IS management has decided to rewrite a legacy customer relations system using fourth generation
languages (4GLs). Which of the following risks is MOST often associated with system development using
4GLs?
A. Inadequate screen/report design facilities
B. Complex programming language subsets
C. Lack of portability across operating systems
D. Inability to perform data intensive operations
Answer: D

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Explanation:
4.Ls are usually not suitable for data intensive operations. Instead, they are used mainly for graphic user
interface (GUI) design or as simple query/report generators.
Incorrect answers:
A, B. Screen/report design facilities are one of the main advantages of 4GLs, and 4GLs have simple
programming language subsets.
C. Portability is also one of the main advantages of 4GLs.

NO.11 Which of the following is a dynamic analysis tool for the purpose of testing software modules?
A. Blackbox test
B. Desk checking
C. Structured walk-through
D. Design and code
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A blackbox test is a dynamic analysis tool for testing software modules. During the testing of software
modules a blackbox test works first in a cohesive manner as one single unit/entity, consisting of numerous
modules and second, with the user data that flows across software modules. In some cases, this even
drives the software behavior.
Incorrect answers:
In choices B, C and D, the software (design or code) remains static and somebody simply closely
examines it by applying his/her mind, without actually activating the software. Hence, these cannot be
referred to as dynamic analysis tools.

NO.12 Which of the following BEST describes the necessary documentation for an enterprise product
reengineering (EPR) software installation?
A. Specific developments only
B. Business requirements only
C. All phases of the installation must be documented
D. No need to develop a customer specific documentation
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A global enterprise product reengineering (EPR) software package can be applied to a business to
replace, simplify and improve the quality of IS processing. Documentation is intended to help understand
how, why and which solutions that have been selected and implemented, and therefore must be specific
to the project. Documentation is also intended to support quality assurance and must be comprehensive.

NO.13 The MOST significant level of effort for business continuity planning (BCP) generally is required during
the:
A. testing stage.
B. evaluation stage.
C. maintenance stage.
D. early stages of planning.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Company.com in the early stages of a BCP will incur the most significant level of program development
effort, which will level out as the BCP moves into maintenance, testing and evaluation stages. It is during
the planning stage that an IS auditor will play an important role in obtaining senior management's
commitment to resources and assignment of BCP responsibilities.

NO.14 Which of the following types of data validation editing checks is used to determine if a field contains
data, and not zeros or blanks?
A. Check digit
B. Existence check
C. Completeness check
D. Reasonableness check
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A completeness check is used to determine if a field contains data and not zeros or blanks. Incorrect
answers:
A. A check digit is a digit calculated mathematically to ensure original data was not altered.
B. An existence check also checks entered data for agreement to predetermined criteria.
D. A reasonableness check matches input to predetermined reasonable limits or occurrence rates.

NO.15 Which of the following translates e-mail formats from one network to another so that the message can
travel through all the networks?
A. Gateway
B. Protocol converter
C. Front-end communication processor
D. Concentrator/multiplexor
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A gateway performs the job of translating e-mail formats from one network to another so messages can
make their way through all the networks.
Incorrect answers:
B. A protocol converter is a hardware device that converts between two different types of transmissions,
such as asynchronous and synchronous transmissions.
C. A front-end communication processor connects all network communication lines to a central computer
to relieve the central computer from performing network control, format conversion and message handling
tasks.
D. A concentrator/multiplexor is a device used for combining several lower-speed channels into a
higher-speed channel.

NO.16 To affix a digital signature to a message, the sender must first create a message digest by applying a
cryptographic hashing algorithm against:
A. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender's private key.
B. any arbitrary part of the message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender's
private key.
C. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message using the sender's private key.
D. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message along with the message digest using the
sender's private key.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A digital signature is a cryptographic method that ensures data integrity, authentication of the message,
and non-repudiation. To ensure these, the sender first creates a message digest by applying a
cryptographic hashing algorithm against the entire message and thereafter enciphers the message digest
using the sender's private key. A message digest is created by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm
against the entire message not on any arbitrary part of the message. After creating the message digest,
only the message digest is enciphered using the sender's private key, not the message.

NO.17 A number of system failures are occurring when corrections to previously detected errors are
resubmitted for acceptance testing. This would indicate that the maintenance team is probably not
adequately performing which of the following types of testing?
A. Unit testing
B. Integration testing
C. Design walk-throughs
D. Configuration management
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A common system maintenance problem is that errors are often corrected quickly (especially when
deadlines are tight) , units are tested by the programmer, and then transferred to the acceptance test area.
This often results in system problems that should have been detected during integration or system testing.
Integration testing aims at ensuring that the major components of the system interface correctly.

NO.18 Which of the following is a telecommunication device that translates data from digital form to analog
form and back to digital?
A. Multiplexer
B. Modem
C. Protocol converter
D. Concentrator
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A modem is a device that translates data from digital to analog and back to digital.

NO.19 An offsite information processing facility having electrical wiring, air conditioning and flooring, but no
computer or communications equipment is a:
A. cold site.
B. warm site.
C. dial-up site.
D. duplicate processing facility.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A cold site is ready to receive equipment but does not offer any components at the site in advance of the
need.
Incorrect answers:
B. A warm site is an offsite backup facility that is configured partially with network connections and
selected peripheral equipment, such as disk and tape units, controllers and CPUs, to operate an
information processing facility.
D. A duplicate information processing facility is a dedicated, self-developed recovery site that can back up
critical applications.

NO.20 Which of the following systems-based approaches would a financial processing company employ to
monitor spending patterns to identify abnormal patterns and report them?
A. A neural network
B. Database management software
C. Management information systems
D. Computer assisted audit techniques
Answer: A Explanation:
A neural network will monitor and learn patterns, reporting exceptions for investigation. Incorrect answers:
B. Database management software is a method of storing and retrieving data.
C. Management information systems provide management statistics but do not normally have a
monitoring and detection function.
D. Computer-assisted audit techniques detect specific situations, but are not intended to learn patterns
and detect abnormalities.

NO.21 A sequence of bits appended to a digital document that is used to secure an e-mail sent through the
Internet is called a:
A. digest signature.
B. electronic signature.
C. digital signature.
D. hash signature.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A digital signature through the private cryptographic key authenticates a transmission from a sender
through the private cryptographic key. It is a string of bits that uniquely represent another string of bits, a
digital document. An electronic signature refers to the string of bits that digitally represents a handwritten
signature captured by a computer system when a human applies it on an electronic pen pad, connected
to the system.

NO.22 Which of the following tests is an IS auditor performing when a sample of programs is selected to
determine if the source and object versions are the same?
A. A substantive test of program library controls
B. A compliance test of program library controls
C. A compliance test of the program compiler controls
D. A substantive test of the program compiler controls
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A compliance test determines if controls are operating as designed and are being applied in a manner that
complies with management policies and procedures. For example, if the IS auditor is concerned whether
program library controls are working properly, the IS auditor might select a sample of programs to
determine if the source and object versions are the same. In other words, the broad objective of any
compliance test is to provide auditors with reasonable assurance that a particular control on which the
auditor plans to rely is operating as the auditor perceived it in the preliminary evaluation.

NO.23 Which of the following network configuration options contains a direct link between any two host
machines?
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Completely connected (mesh)
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A completely connected mesh configuration creates a direct link between any two host machines.
Incorrect answers:
A. A bus configuration links all stations along one transmission line.
B. A ring configuration forms a circle, and all stations are attached to a point on the transmission circle.
D. In a star configuration each station is linked directly to a main hub.

NO.24 A LAN administrator normally would be restricted from:
A. having end-user responsibilities.
B. reporting to the end-user manager.
C. having programming responsibilities.
D. being responsible for LAN security administration.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A LAN administrator should not have programming responsibilities but may have end- user
responsibilities. The LAN administrator may report to the director of the IPF or, in a decentralized
operation, to the end-user manager. In small organizations, the LAN administrator also may be
responsible for security administration over the LAN.

NO.25 Which of the following data validation edits is effective in detecting transposition and transcription
errors?
A. Range check
B. Check digit
C. Validity check
D. Duplicate check
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A check digit is a numeric value that is calculated mathematically and is appended to data to
ensure that the original data have not been altered or an incorrect, but valid, value substituted.
This control is effective in detecting transposition and transcription errors.
Incorrect answers:
A. A range check is checking data that matches a predetermined range of values.
C. A validity check is programmed checking of the data validity in accordance with predetermined criteria.
D. In a duplicate check, new or fresh transactions are matched to those previously entered to ensure that
they are not already in the system.

NO.26 The use of a GANTT chart can:
A. aid in scheduling project tasks.
B. determine project checkpoints.
C. ensure documentation standards.
D. direct the post-implementation review.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A GANTT chart is used in project control. It may aid in the identification of needed checkpoints but its
primary use is in scheduling. It will not ensure the completion of documentation nor will it provide direction
for the post-implementation review.

NO.27 Structured programming is BEST described as a technique that:
A. provides knowledge of program functions to other programmers via peer reviews.
B. reduces the maintenance time of programs by the use of small-scale program modules.
C. makes the readable coding reflect as closely as possible the dynamic execution of the program.
D. controls the coding and testing of the high-level functions of the program in the development process.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A characteristic of structured programming is smaller, workable units. Structured programming has
evolved because smaller, workable units are easier to maintain. Structured programming is a style of
programming which restricts the kinds of control structures. This limitation is not crippling. Any program
can be written with allowed control structures. Structured programming is sometimes referred to as
go-to-less programming, since a go-to statement is not allowed. This is perhaps the most well known
restriction of the style, since go-to statements were common at the time structured programming was
becoming more popular. Statement labels also become unnecessary, except in languages where
subroutines are identified by labels.

NO.28 A call-back system requires that a user with an id and password call a remote server through a dial-up
line, then the server disconnects and: A. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and
password using a telephone number from its database.
B. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number provided
by the user during this connection.
C. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and
password using its database.
D. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and
password using the sender's database.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A call-back system in a net centric environment would mean that a user with an id and password calls a
remote server through a dial-up line first, and then the server disconnects and dials back to the user
machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number from its database. Although the
server can depend upon its own database, it cannot know the authenticity of the dialer when the user dials
again. The server cannot depend upon the sender's database to dial back as the same could be
manipulated.

NO.29 A data administrator is responsible for: A. maintaining database system software.
B. defining data elements, data names and their relationship.
C. developing physical database structures.
D. developing data dictionary system software.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A data administrator is responsible for defining data elements, data names and their relationship. Choices
A, C and D are functions of a database administrator (DBA)

NO.30 A database administrator is responsible for:
A. defining data ownership.
B. establishing operational standards for the data dictionary.
C. creating the logical and physical database.
D. establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and security.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A database administrator is responsible for creating and controlling the logical and physical database.
Defining data ownership resides with the head of the user department or top management if the data is
common to the organization. IS management and the data administrator are responsible for establishing
operational standards for the data dictionary. Establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and
security in line with the corporate security policy is a function of the security administrator.

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