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Exam Code: MSC-431
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NO.1 For a multiple regression model, the R2 is the parameter that:
A. Represents the fraction of total variation explained by the model
B. Explains the strength of only one of the inputs in the model
C. Explains if the input factor causes the output response
D. Quantifies the slope of the line in the model
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the most powerful factor in achieving success in Six Sigma in an organization?
A. Strategic Integration
B. Business Process Framework
C. A consistent, disciplined team meeting schedule
D. Committed Leadership
Answer: D

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NO.3 After developing a Process map (listing steps and functions), the first step in developing an
FMEA is:
A. Brainstorming possible failure modes with team members
B. Assigning scores for SEVERITY , OCCURRENCE and DETECTION
C. Calculating RPN-Risk Priority Number
D. Prioritizing failure modes for action or resolution
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the purpose of performing a Stakeholder Analysis?
A. Analyze the strength of commitment needed for project stakeholders vs. where they are currently
B. Analyze the risk for the project
C. Analyze the completeness of charter for the project
D. Analyze the methodology chosen for the project
Answer: A

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7. Which of the following terms refers to a trial implementation of the proposed design or
process change on a reduced scale?
A. Production Run
B. Pilot
C. Design of Experiments
D. Comparative Method
Answer: B

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8. What is the correct order of steps in an experiment (DOE)?
-Design the experiment & plan data collection -Run the experiment and collect data -State the
problem or objective -Analyze the results -Interpret the results"
A. 1,3,4,2,5
B. 3, 1, 2,4,5
C. 3,1,4,2,5
D. 3, 1, 2, 5,4
Answer: B

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NO.5 Electrical devices are evaluated as conforming or not conforming to specifications. The
appropriate data type is:
A. Nominal discrete data
B. Continuous data
C. Ordinal data
D. Variable data
Answer: A

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NO.6 In a statistical analysis, the beta risk () is:
A. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true
B. Always equal to 0.10
C. Driven by the cost of sampling
D. The probability of failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false
Answer: D

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Exam Code: MSC-111
Exam Name: Design Point (PTP and PMP) Solutions
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Exam Code: MSC-431
Exam Name: Lean Six Sigma Black Belt
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NO.1 The reflection of a radio wave can affect the link quality:
A. negatively ONLY
B. positively ONLY
C. either negatively or positively
D. it does not affect link quality
Answer: C

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NO.2 Microwave Point to Point systems can be susceptible to Multi-path cancellation. Which technology can
help mitigate Multi-Path?
A. IEEE 802.3AF
B. OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Duplex)
C. Transmit time diversity
D. RF port replication
Answer: B

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NO.3 Thermal Ducting is a phenomenon often seen over great distances of water and flat hot terrain. It is the
layering of different density air in the atmosphere and can cause significant signal fading. One possible
solution to Thermal Ducting is to:
A. use two physically separated single polarized antennas (also known as Space Diversity)
B. deploy a single polarization microwave system.
C. increase frequency to increase free space attenuation.
D. deploy a Dual Polarity antenna at both ends of a link.
Answer: A

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NO.4 During the early stages of the design process, the current and planned IP addressing scheme on the
project description template is used to check:
A. IP addressing conflicts with defaults.
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) configuration
C. IP addressing requirements for core and edge routers.
D. network component capacity design
Answer: A

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NO.5 The amount of MAC addresses to Ethernet Port mappings in a switch is finite. What happens when the
available mappings in these lookup tables are exhausted?
A. The switch drops all traffic destined for MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables
B. The switch caches all traffic destined for the MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables until
entries become available
C. The switch sends a congestion notification out the port to throttle the traffic until the lookup tables have
available entries
D. The switch floods traffic for all MAC addresses that do not have a lookup entry out of all its ports
Answer: D

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NO.6 The main function of an antenna is to:
A. add power to a signal,
B. decode radio signals into data traffic.
C. direct radio energy in a desired direction.
D. protect transmitters from lightning.
Answer: C

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NO.7 When installing a PMP Access Point antenna on a tower, you need to install it at the proper height.
Motorola recommended practice is to mount the antenna at least how many feet/meters below the top of
the tower to protect it from lightning?
A. 0 feet / meters
B. 2 feet/0.6 meters
C. 10 feet/3 meters
D. 25 feet / 8 meters
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the common term used to describe the process of limiting which VLAN IDs can traverse a
particular VLAN trunk port.?
A. VLAN Pruning
B. MVRP (Multiple VLAN Registration Protocol)
C. VTP (VLAN Trunk Protocol)
D. VLAN Sectioning
E. VLAN Negotiation
Answer: A

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Exam Code: MSC-121
Exam Name: Design WLan Solutions
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Exam Code: MSC-241
Exam Name: Design and Deploy for MOTOTRBO Solutions EMEA
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NO.1 Which of the following situations would force a wireless client to renew its IP address?
A. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to the same VLAN
B. Roaming between controllers supporting the same VLANs
C. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to different VLANs
D. All of the above would force a client to renew its IP address
Answer: C

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NO.2 The IEEE 802.lln amendment to the standard addresses several PHY layer enhancements. One of
these enhancements is "Channel Bonding" allowing for 40 MHz wide channels. Without taking any
specific local regulatory domain into consideration, what is the maximum number of non-overlapping 40
MHz wide channels that can exist in the 2.4 GHz ISM band.?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
E. 11
F. 20
Answer: A

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NO.3 Network Layer TCP/IP packets that are prepared to be sent across the 802.11 wireless medium are
commonly known as which of the following?
A. MAC service data unit
B. MAC protocol data unit
C. LLC sub-layer data unit
D. MAC service switch unit
E. PHY layer service data unit
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are a network design engineer and are assigned to provide an enterprise S02.1X/EAP solution to
secure your company's IEEE 802.11n WLAN. What networking protocol/service that provides centralized
Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for computers to connect and use
wireless network resources can be implemented?
A. Secure Shell (SSH)
B. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
C. Virtual Private Networking (VPN)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) Passphrase
E. Remote Authentication DialinUser Service (RADIUS)
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning the IEEE 802.11 Open Authentication
procedure?
A. Uses four way frame exchange
B. Is optional before additional authentication
C. May occur after the association
D. Must occur before additional authentication
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following terms refers to the strength of an emitted RF signal measured at its strongest
point?
A. EIRP (Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power)
B. 1FZ (First Fresnel Zone)
C. Azimuth
D. dBi
E. IR (Intentional Radiator)
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are a computer network consultant at a small medical office and responsible for the design and
deployment of the IEEE 802.11b/g WLAN. Some of the users of the WLAN are complaining about the
performance of the network. You use a layer 2 WLAN analyzer to view the frames traversing the wireless
medium to see if you can determine the problem. After careful examination of the data recorded you
notice a significant amount of CTS-to-Self frames. What is a potential reason for the high number of these
frame types?
A. The access points are in OFDM only mode
B. The access points support Quality of Service
C. The access points are in HR/DSSS only mode
D. The access points are in ERP protection mode
Answer: D

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NO.8 You have been assigned to design a new IEEE wireless LAN that will require six access points for both
coverage and capacity. Based on expected client device usage, it has been determined the
2.4 GHz ISM band will be the most appropriate for this deployment. Without taking any specific local
regulatory domain into consideration, how many channels are available for selection in the
2.4 GHz ISM band?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 11
D. 14
E. 23
Answer: D

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Exam Code: MSC-431
Exam Name: Lean Six Sigma Black Belt
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Last Update: 2014-07-24

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Exam Code: MSC-241
Exam Name: Design and Deploy for MOTOTRBO Solutions EMEA
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Last Update: 2014-07-24

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NO.1 What changes are required to the Master Repeater in an IP Site Connect system when a new
peer
is added to the system?
A. Both the IP address and port number of the new repeater must be configured into the Master
Repeater.
B. The address of the new peer must be configured into the Master Repeater.
C. The port of the new peer must be configured into the Master Repeater.
D. No changes are required to the Master Repeater.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following are TRUE statements about operating a MOTOTRBO repeater in a
Capacity Plus configuration?
A. One of its logical channels can work in trunked mode and the other logical channel can work in
data revert mode.
B. Both logical channels can work in trunked mode.
C. Both logical channels can work in data revert mode.
D. Only A & B are true (C is false)
E. Only B & C are true (A is false)
F. A, B, & C are true
Answer: F

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NO.3 Which of the following are TRUE statements about operating a MOTOTRBO repeater in an IP
Site
Connect configuration?
A. One of its logical channels can work in IP Site Connect mode (over wide area) and the other
logical channel can work in digital repeater mode (single site over local area).
B. Both logical channels can work in digital repeater mode (single site over local area).
C. Both logical channels can work in IP Site Connect mode (over wide area).
D. Only A and B are true (C is false).
E. Only A and C are true (B is false).
F. A, B, and C are true.
Answer: F

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NO.4 On which type of channel in an IP Site Connect system are Transmit Interrupt features
supported
in repeater firmware releases R01.08.00 and higher?
A. Wide Area Slots only
B. Local Area Slots only
C. Both Wide and Local Area slots
D. Noneoftheabove
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following antennas is BEST suited for providing coverage inside a tall building?
A. 4 element Yagi
B. Radiating coaxial cable
C. End-fed half-wave antenna
D. High gain collinear antenna
Answer: B

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NO.6 A Capacity Plus system consists of three (3) repeaters with repeater one (1) the master and
repeaters two (2) and three (3) as peers. On the 24th of May, there is a lighting strike at the site
and the building lost power, causing the three repeaters to revert to DC power. The design of the
site called for just the repeaters to be battery backed. However the next morning the customer
calls and reports that a number of talkgroups are getting busy tones (engaged), yet other groups
are seeing no busy tones (engaged) on the system. Which of the following statements BEST
describe the issue?
A. The master has gone down and taken the rest of the Capacity Plus network with it.
B. The peers use DHCP and were not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list and
went off the Capacity Plus network as their leases expired.
C. The switch was not on battery backup and there are no LAN connections on the Capacity Plus
system, each of the repeaters are now operating as three (3) independent Capacity Plus systems.
D. The peers use DHCP and were not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list.
The dealer should have used static IP addresses throughout.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What will Enhanced Channel Access improve?
A. The amount of GPS updates that can be sent on a data revert channel
B. The amount of time from when PTT is pressed until voice is sent
C. Call success rate
D. Call setup time
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are looking to optimize battery life of radios that are close to the base station. Which is
the
most likely parameter for optimizing the battery life of a radio for a Capacity Plus system?
A. Beacon interval
B. Beacon duration
C. High power mode in Radio
D. Low power mode in Radio
Answer: D

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Exam Code: MSC-321
Exam Name: Designing and Deploying Advanced Data Capture (ADC) Solution
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Exam Code: MSC-331
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Exam Code: MSC-241
Exam Name: Design and Deploy for MOTOTRBO Solutions EMEA
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Last Update: 2014-07-20

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NO.1 A Capacity Plus system consists of three (3) repeaters with repeater one (1) the master and
repeaters two (2) and three (3) as peers. The dealer needs to make a simple change in repeater
two (2) and utilize IP repeater programming (IRP) to access the repeater remotely. A couple of
days later the customer calls and complains about users getting system busy tones (engaged
tones).
The dealer attempts to connect an RDAC remotely to the system with no success. He has verified
he can communicate to the router at the site.
Which of the following statements BEST describes the issue?
A. The master has gone down and taken the rest of the Capacity Plus network with it.
B. The master has gone down and the system is operating on just two (2) repeaters.
C. There is RF interference on the channel and the master repeater is unable to communicate to
the peers.
D. The peers are using DHCP and are not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list.
The system is operating on just the master.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What will Enhanced Channel Access improve?
A. The amount of GPS updates that can be sent on a data revert channel
B. The amount of time from when PTT is pressed until voice is sent
C. Call success rate
D. Call setup time
Answer: C

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NO.3 A MOTOTRBO repeater is connected to a Zetron Model 35 Telephone Interconnect. If a
telephone
user dials the Telephone Interconnect number, they get a busy signal (engaged tone). If a radio
user dials any telephone number, they don’t hear the ringing tone, only silence. Upon visiting the
site, you find that when a radio user dials, the relay click can be heard from the Zetron Model 35.
Unplugging the RJ11 and dialing the Telephone Interconnect, still results in a busy signal
(engaged tone). With this information, what do you think could be wrong?
A. The Zetron Model 35 may be faulty.
B. The Zetron Model 35 has probably not been configured for the phone line Ringer Equivalence
Number (REN).
C. The RJ11 cable may have a short circuit or there is a short circuit somewhere between the site
and the exchange.
D. The repeater interface cable to the Zetron Model 35 is faulty.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following antennas is BEST suited for providing coverage inside a tall building?
A. 4 element Yagi
B. Radiating coaxial cable
C. End-fed half-wave antenna
D. High gain collinear antenna
Answer: B

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NO.5 A Capacity Plus system consists of three (3) repeaters with repeater one (1) the master and
repeaters two (2) and three (3) as peers. On the 24th of May, there is a lighting strike at the site
and the building lost power, causing the three repeaters to revert to DC power. The design of the
site called for just the repeaters to be battery backed. However the next morning the customer
calls and reports that a number of talkgroups are getting busy tones (engaged), yet other groups
are seeing no busy tones (engaged) on the system. Which of the following statements BEST
describe the issue?
A. The master has gone down and taken the rest of the Capacity Plus network with it.
B. The peers use DHCP and were not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list and
went off the Capacity Plus network as their leases expired.
C. The switch was not on battery backup and there are no LAN connections on the Capacity Plus
system, each of the repeaters are now operating as three (3) independent Capacity Plus systems.
D. The peers use DHCP and were not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list.
The dealer should have used static IP addresses throughout.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following are TRUE statements about operating a MOTOTRBO repeater in a
Capacity Plus configuration?
A. One of its logical channels can work in trunked mode and the other logical channel can work in
data revert mode.
B. Both logical channels can work in trunked mode.
C. Both logical channels can work in data revert mode.
D. Only A & B are true (C is false)
E. Only B & C are true (A is false)
F. A, B, & C are true
Answer: F

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NO.7 Which of the following are TRUE statements about operating a MOTOTRBO repeater in an IP
Site
Connect configuration?
A. One of its logical channels can work in IP Site Connect mode (over wide area) and the other
logical channel can work in digital repeater mode (single site over local area).
B. Both logical channels can work in digital repeater mode (single site over local area).
C. Both logical channels can work in IP Site Connect mode (over wide area).
D. Only A and B are true (C is false).
E. Only A and C are true (B is false).
F. A, B, and C are true.
Answer: F

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NO.8 On which type of channel in an IP Site Connect system are Transmit Interrupt features
supported
in repeater firmware releases R01.08.00 and higher?
A. Wide Area Slots only
B. Local Area Slots only
C. Both Wide and Local Area slots
D. Noneoftheabove
Answer: D

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Exam Code: MSC-235
Exam Name: Design and Deploy for MOTOTRBO Connect Plus Solutions BETA
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Last Update: 2014-07-20

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Exam Code: MSC-431
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NO.1 Your customer is a rail operator whose system covers approximately 125 kilometers (77 miles)
of
track. Trains travel rapidly, and the operator is using a location tracking application to update their
displayed location as frequently as possible. Location updates are critical, even if this means
putting voice calls into the busy queue. What can you do to ensure this behavior?
A. Make sure that RSSI settings are set to -ll3dBm or less for “RSSI Preferred” in the mobiles in
the trains. This will allow the proper sensitivity to make frequent location updates possible. Give
individual SU records a lower priority than any talkgroup priority.
B. Enhanced GPS must be enabled in the Repeaters and Subscribers. Give individual SU records
a higher priority than any talkgroup priority.
C. Call Sessions Configuration in the Network Manager should be set to 29 for the “Number of
Outbound Data Sessions Allowed” field and somewhat less for the Number of Voice/Inbound Data
sessions field. Give individual SU records a higher priority than any talkgroup priority.
D. Location updates should be optimized by enabling Advanced GPS with GPS Data Revert
channels.
Answer: C

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NO.2 If there is a failure or reboot of a site controller, which of the following must you consider
regarding
Over The Air (OTA) file transfers (select TWO)?
A. Any transfers in progress at the time of the failure may have to be repeated.
B. The controller will have to be re-entitled for OTA operation after it is back online.
C. If the site controller recovers on a different Control Channel, transfers may have to be
reconfigured.
D. Any pending transfers on that controller will be lost and must be re-queued.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 You are designing a 3 site Connect Plus system with 12 repeaters per site, no site controller
redundancy, and 3 control channel-capable repeaters at each site. The average number of
subscribers active at a site may approach 300 at any given time of the day. If this customer
experiences a site controller failure, what symptoms and subscriber behavior would you expect
immediately after the failure occurs?
A. All calls in progress at the site will drop. Subscribers will automatically fall back to digital
conventional, allowing users to utilize any of the site’s repeaters.
B. All calls in progress at the site will drop. All subscribers will attempt to roam to one of the other
sites.
C. Calls in progress will remain until one of the other control-channel capable repeaters assumes
the site controller’s role and then they will drop and register on the new controller.
D. Calls in progress will stay up until they complete normally. Subscribers on the control channel
will attempt to roam to one of the other sites.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Your customer operates a 4-site Connect Plus network. Two sites are adjacent to each other,
with
overlapping coverage. The other two sites respectively service two manufacturing plants that are
approximately 900 kilometers (559 miles) apart. There are approximately 30 talkgroups in the
network and 300 subscribers. When creating the Option Board codeplug for this customer’s
portable radios, which of the following is the best strategy to ensure smooth, logical operation?
A. Create a separate zone for each of the 4 sites to contain all the necessary contact and RSSI
settings.
B. Create a single Connect Plus zone that will address all of their necessary RSSI settings and
contact lists.
C. Create 2 Connect Plus zones to contain the different contacts and RSSI settings necessary
with this type of topology.
D. Create 3 separate Connect Plus zones to contain the different contacts and RSSI settings
necessary with this type of topology.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are using the Network Manager to connect to a multisite system. Where can you view the
current state of connections to other sites in this multisite system?
A. Event Log Viewer
B. RealTime Display
C. Site Status Window
D. MultiSite Configuration Window
Answer: C

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NO.6 A Request for Proposal (RFP) for a single-site, operations-critical customer requires you to
respond to the following requirement: “...if the RF site equipment includes network switches,
describe the system behavior in the event of a site LAN switch failure.” Which of the following is
the BEST response to this requirement?
A. Redundant site networking equipment may be specified and configured so as to negate the
impact of a single site LAN switch failure. If redundant networking equipment is not installed,the
failure of a site LAN will not affect calls in-progress, but will make it impossible for subscribers to
register at the site.
B. If the single site LAN switch fails, the site master repeater will begin broadcasting failsoft
messages. All subscribers will revert to failsoft operation. The users may select any site repeater
on which to communicate conventionally.
C. Redundant site networking equipment may be specified and configured so as to negate the
impact of a single site LAN switch failure. If redundant networking equipment is not installed, the
failure of a site LAN switch will cause all calls to drop and the subscribers will attempt to roam to
an operational site.
D. In the case of a single-site system, Connect Plus does not utilize site LAN switches.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: MSC-122
Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Deploy WLAN Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 113 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-25

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NO.1 You are designing a WLAN that will support multiple BSS IDs. One of the characteristics you need to
take into consideration is that each BSS transmits a beacon every 100 ms. How many BSSs can be
enabled on the following Motorola access points under WiNG 5: AP7131, AP650, AP6532?
A. 2, one per radio
B. 1 per AP, it is shared between the radios to provide seamless roaming
C. 8, four per radio
D. 16, eight per radio
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are deploying a new system and are creating the RF Domain(s). Which of the following options
would you use to group the APs into the same domain?
A. By VLAN, where all APs are on the same subnet.
B. By site, which can be a location where the group of installed APs can hear each other's beacons.
C. By name, so they can be easily sorted in the tree view of the controller.
D. By deployment phase, so configurations can be accidentally pushed to newly installed APs.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are deploying a new WLAN within the WiNG 5 architecture. Which of the following is the only
UNSUPPORTED Motorola access point/port?
A. AP-300
B. AP-650
C. AP-5131
D. AP-7131
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is NOT considered to be a best practice with respect to the wired
backbone serving the WLAN.?
A. When performing manual configuration of a point-to-point Ethernet link, ensure that both the speed and
the duplex mode settings on the two ports match.
B. When creating a link between Ethernet 10/100BASE-T or 10/100/1000BASE-T ports, enable (or accept
the default of) auto-negotiation on both ports.
C. When creating a link between Gigabit Ethernet fiber ports, enable (or accept the default of)
auto-negotiation.
D. When creating a link between Gigabit Ethernet fiber ports, disable auto-negotiation on both ports.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have configured a Motorola RFS controller using WiNG 5 and have attempted to adopt a group of
APs using L2 adoption but the adoption is not successful. You have confirmed the following:
-All of the APs have an Ethernet connection to the same LAN segment as the controller -Spanning Tree
Protocol (STP) has been disabled on the APs next hop switch port -Intermediate firewalls are not blocking
EtherType 0x8783
Given this scenario, which of the following is the most likely cause of the unsuccessful AP adoption?
A. DHCP option 192 has not been defined on the DHCP server
B. A local VLAN has been configured on both the controller and the APs
C. The APs GE ports have been configured for an S02.1q-tagged native VLAN
D. The APs GE ports have been configured for an 802.1q-untagged native VLAN
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is the primary method of collision avoidance in an 802.11 CSMA/CA WLAN?
A. Backoff Timer
B. Carrier Sense
C. Contention Window
D. Enhanced Distributed Channel Access (EDCA)
E. Distributed Coordination Function Interframe Spaces (DIFS)
Answer: B

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NO.7 Your customer has requested that you configure unique VLANs for voice, normal user data with
802.1X security, guest access, and management traffic. Which of the following VLAN modes can support
this request?
A. Native Mode
B. Access Mode
C. Trunk Mode
D. Aggregation Mode
E. Encapsulation Mode
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following statements regarding the configuration of Motorola RFS controllers is TRUE?
A. ADSP can be used to push CLI profiles to APs and controllers.
B. LANPlanner can be used to push CLI profiles to APs and controllers.
C. RFMS can be used to perform predictive site surveys using an RFS controller
D. WiNG 5 can be used to perform manual site surveys using an RFs controller
E. CLI can be used to perform both manual and predictive site surveys using an RFS controller.
Answer: A

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NO.9 During a recent throughput analysis test of your 802.11g network, you discovered that performance is
poor in comparison to previous baselines. You discover that this is the result of 802.11b stations becoming
associated with your access point. What option could you implement to eliminate 802.lib clients from
attaching to your network?
A. Implement protection mechanisms
B. Make 24 mbps a required data rate
C. Implement RTS/CTS at the access point
D. Change the channel used for the network
Answer: B

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NO.10 If a Motorola access point induces a 50 mW RF signal onto a 3 dBi antenna, what will be the resulting
EIRP of the transmitted signal?
A. 0 dBm
B. 3 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 50 mW
E. 50 dBm
Answer: C

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NO.11 You are performing a physical site survey of a new WiNG 5 WLAN deployment. Which of the following is
CORRECT?
A. The Signal to Noise Ratio (SNR) is a critical measurement that needs to be addressed.
B. It is acceptable that you use any RF infrastructure device (Access Point) to perform the site survey test.
C. Using default settings of a site survey application will provide an adequate site survey result.
D. Customer throughput requirements are the only criteria for which need to be surveyed.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Your customer has requested that during the upcoming 802.llg to 802.11n upgrade deployment you
enable 40 MHz channels on 1, 6, and 11 of the 2.4 GHz ISM band. You respond by saying that there is not
enough spectrum to allow 40 MHz channels centered on 1, 6, and 11. How wide are standard 802.11g
(OFDM) channels?
A. 20 MHz
B. 83.5 MHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 11 MHz
E. 22 MHz
Answer: A

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NO.13 You have just conducted a throughput test using iPerf on a WLAN that shows a PHY signaling rate of 54
Mbps, however the average throughput rate shown in iPerf is only 23.5 Mbps. What is the most likely
explanation for this condition?
A. This throughput speed is considered nominal.
B. This throughput rate could indicate a mismatch between Wi-Fi confidentiality algorithms.
C. This throughput rate indicates excessive user activity.
D. This throughput rate indicates excessive out-of-band interference such as nearby cell phone towers.
Answer: A

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NO.14 You have an access point that requires PoE connected to a switch with a 150 meter 10 BASE-T CAT 5
cable. During testing numerous problems with both data transmission and intermittent power occurs.
Which of the following is most likely the cause?
A. The cable should be CAT 6
B. There is a duplex mismatch
C. The cable should be 100 BASE-T
D. The cable is too long
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following APs does not support adaptive mode?
A. AP7131
B. AP6532
C. AP650
D. AP6521
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy AirDefense Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 103 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-24

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NO.1 There was a rogue AP on your network as detected by ADSP. The rogue was displayed in your Alarms.
When you run a wireless security posture details report for the same time range, the rogue does not
appear in the report. What is the most likely cause for the rogue not being in the report?
A. The report was run for a different scope than the one that detected the rogue.
B. Your account was not created in the scope level where the rogue was detected.
C. You are logged into ADSP as a guest account which lacks the permission to run the report.
D. The rogue device has been removed from the network and the corresponding alarm is now inactive.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You used the Report Builder to create a custom template to support your PCI compliance initiative.
Two weeks later you decide to use the report but you're not quite sure where to locate it. How would you
access this template?
A. By selecting it in the Custom Reports found in the reporting feature
B. By using the search feature in the Web reporting interface
C. By selecting it under the Inactive category on the Reports page
D. By using the Templates drop down box in the Report Builder application
Answer: A

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NO.3 How can the Wireless Intrusion Protection System (WIPS) feature of the Motorola Solutions
AirDefense Services Platform (ADSP) be used to protect your Wi-Fi network?
A. The WIPS system can remove rogue access points from neighboring networks
B. The WIPS system can utilize RF Jamming to keep your channels clear.
C. The WIPS system can identify wired leakage and other network vulnerabilities
D. The WIPS system can stop neighboring devices from using your channels
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are the administrator of a very large ADSP installation protecting an international WLAN
deployment. Running a compliance report each day for your boss takes a great deal of your time in the
mornings. What can you do using ADSP to reduce the amount of your time it takes to render this
information and deliver it to your boss?
A. Create a Guest account for your boss. Teach them to run their own each day, leaving you free for other
tasks.
B. Create an Admin account for your boss. Teach them to run their own each day, leaving you free for
other tasks.
C. Add the desired report to the Data Collection Polling interval with a daily schedule to be emailed to your
boss.
D. Add the report to your favorites list. Then schedule it to run at an off peak time and to automatically be
emailed to your boss each day.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A requirement for seamless roaming in a Robust Security network is that the access points receive the
Pairwise Master Key (PMK) identifier from the station in the reassociation frame. What other information
must be included in that frame?
A. Any 802.1g VLAN tags.
B. The IP address and subnet mask.
C. The randomly generated shared secret.
D. The MAC address of the old access point.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following best defines a "security risk"?
A. The likelihood of being targeted by a given attack, of an attack being successful, and general exposure
to a given threat.
B. The source and means of a particular type of attack.
C. The security flaws in a system that allow an attack to be successful.
D. Reduced Instruction Set Kernel.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Broadcasting the SSID and allowing the access point to respond to clients with no SSID makes it easier
for the clients, but some consider it a security loophole. The theory for disallowing these two practices is
that it helps ° h i d ¡± t h e n e t w ork
What is the problem with this theory?
A. Hiding the SSID turns off the beacons thus disabling passive scanning
B. Not responding to null SSIDs causes the EAP process to break down
C. These values must be present in order for intrusion detection systems to function
D. The SSID will still be present in probe request frames and can be seen with a protocol analyzer
Answer: D

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NO.8 You have configured your ADSP appliance to use a RADIUS server to validate user credentials upon
GUI logon. However, users continue to be validated directly by ADSP. What additional step must be taken
to ensure GUI users are authenticated via the RADIUS server you configured when they are logging into
ADSP?
A. The ADSP appliance must be rebooted to ensure the settings are recorded properly
B. Each user account must be configured to use the correct RADIUS server for authentication
C. You must log into the CLI using the SMXMGR account and run the Enforce Credentials command
D. Log into the GUI with your admin account and click on the Synchronize RADIUS Accounts button in
Appliance Manager
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following appropriately characterizes a rogue access point (AP)?
A. An AP that is causing Co-Channel interference with your APs.
B. An AP that is not the same brand as your customers APs.
C. An AP that is on your wired network without proper authorization.
D. An AP that is not using the security required by corporate policy.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A new coffee shop opens in your building offering hot-spot internet access. Several of your users are
connecting to the hot-spot while at their desks to bypass your firewall rules. What is the best thing that can
be done using the ADSP system to prevent this?
A. Integrate with the firewall using SNMP and import the same firewall rules.
B. Create a termination policy to prevent accidental associations of authorized AP's.
C. Create a termination policy to prevent authorized stations from using ad-hoc networks.
D. Create a termination policy to prevent accidental associations of your work stations to unauthorized
networks.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the purpose of the Bonding command in the ADSP CLI.?
A. The Bonding command is used to link sensors to the correct container in the ADSP tree.
B. The Bonding command is used to enable the Primary and Secondary ADSP appliances to synchronize.
C. The Bonding command is used to enable both of the NIC's on ADSP's system board to act as one for
high availability.
D. The Bonding command is used to ensure that both the Primary and Secondary ADSP appliances are
configured to use the same IP address.
Answer: C

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NO.12 When would the configuration of ADSP include the use of a RADIUS server?
A. When LDAP is not available
B. When sensor validation is required
C. When sensors require a VPN connection
D. When centralized authentication is required
Answer: D

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NO.13 What security exists for the communication between sensors and the ADSP appliance?
A. EAP-TTLS and SSL
B. PEAP and SSL
C. PKI and SSL
D. EAP-TLS and SSL
Answer: C

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NO.14 Spectrum Analysis can be performed using different modes of operation. Which of following modes
would be the most appropriate to use if you need to perform a Spectrum Analysis and capture information
about the data link layer (Layer 2 of OSI model)?
A. Dual Layer Scan Mode
B. Continuous Scan Mode
C. Background Scan Mode
D. Interference Scan Mode
Answer: C

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NO.15 Your company processes and stores credit card information in a corporate database. You must be able
to determine the status of the company's compliance to the Payment Card Industry (PCI) standard with
regard to wireless device use. How can this be accomplished using ADSP?
A. By running a PCI compliance report at each of the retail store levels of your ADSP tree.
B. By running a PCI compliance report at the accounting department level of your ADSP tree,
C. By running a PCI compliance report at the system level of your ADSP tree.
D. By running a PCI compliance report at network operations center level of your ADSP tree.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: MSC-131
Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy AirDefense Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 103 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-03

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NO.1 There was a rogue AP on your network as detected by ADSP. The rogue was displayed in your Alarms.
When you run a wireless security posture details report for the same time range, the rogue does not
appear in the report. What is the most likely cause for the rogue not being in the report?
A. The report was run for a different scope than the one that detected the rogue.
B. Your account was not created in the scope level where the rogue was detected.
C. You are logged into ADSP as a guest account which lacks the permission to run the report.
D. The rogue device has been removed from the network and the corresponding alarm is now inactive.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A requirement for seamless roaming in a Robust Security network is that the access points receive the
Pairwise Master Key (PMK) identifier from the station in the reassociation frame. What other information
must be included in that frame?
A. Any 802.1g VLAN tags.
B. The IP address and subnet mask.
C. The randomly generated shared secret.
D. The MAC address of the old access point.
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are the administrator of a very large ADSP installation protecting an international WLAN
deployment. Running a compliance report each day for your boss takes a great deal of your time in the
mornings. What can you do using ADSP to reduce the amount of your time it takes to render this
information and deliver it to your boss?
A. Create a Guest account for your boss. Teach them to run their own each day, leaving you free for other
tasks.
B. Create an Admin account for your boss. Teach them to run their own each day, leaving you free for
other tasks.
C. Add the desired report to the Data Collection Polling interval with a daily schedule to be emailed to your
boss.
D. Add the report to your favorites list. Then schedule it to run at an off peak time and to automatically be
emailed to your boss each day.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following appropriately characterizes a rogue access point (AP)?
A. An AP that is causing Co-Channel interference with your APs.
B. An AP that is not the same brand as your customers APs.
C. An AP that is on your wired network without proper authorization.
D. An AP that is not using the security required by corporate policy.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You used the Report Builder to create a custom template to support your PCI compliance initiative.
Two weeks later you decide to use the report but you're not quite sure where to locate it. How would you
access this template?
A. By selecting it in the Custom Reports found in the reporting feature
B. By using the search feature in the Web reporting interface
C. By selecting it under the Inactive category on the Reports page
D. By using the Templates drop down box in the Report Builder application
Answer: A

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NO.6 Spectrum Analysis can be performed using different modes of operation. Which of following modes
would be the most appropriate to use if you need to perform a Spectrum Analysis and capture information
about the data link layer (Layer 2 of OSI model)?
A. Dual Layer Scan Mode
B. Continuous Scan Mode
C. Background Scan Mode
D. Interference Scan Mode
Answer: C

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NO.7 You have configured your ADSP appliance to use a RADIUS server to validate user credentials upon
GUI logon. However, users continue to be validated directly by ADSP. What additional step must be taken
to ensure GUI users are authenticated via the RADIUS server you configured when they are logging into
ADSP?
A. The ADSP appliance must be rebooted to ensure the settings are recorded properly
B. Each user account must be configured to use the correct RADIUS server for authentication
C. You must log into the CLI using the SMXMGR account and run the Enforce Credentials command
D. Log into the GUI with your admin account and click on the Synchronize RADIUS Accounts button in
Appliance Manager
Answer: B

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NO.8 How can the Wireless Intrusion Protection System (WIPS) feature of the Motorola Solutions
AirDefense Services Platform (ADSP) be used to protect your Wi-Fi network?
A. The WIPS system can remove rogue access points from neighboring networks
B. The WIPS system can utilize RF Jamming to keep your channels clear.
C. The WIPS system can identify wired leakage and other network vulnerabilities
D. The WIPS system can stop neighboring devices from using your channels
Answer: C

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NO.9 Your company processes and stores credit card information in a corporate database. You must be able
to determine the status of the company's compliance to the Payment Card Industry (PCI) standard with
regard to wireless device use. How can this be accomplished using ADSP?
A. By running a PCI compliance report at each of the retail store levels of your ADSP tree.
B. By running a PCI compliance report at the accounting department level of your ADSP tree,
C. By running a PCI compliance report at the system level of your ADSP tree.
D. By running a PCI compliance report at network operations center level of your ADSP tree.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Broadcasting the SSID and allowing the access point to respond to clients with no SSID makes it easier
for the clients, but some consider it a security loophole. The theory for disallowing these two practices is
that it helps ° h i d ¡± t h e n e t w ork
What is the problem with this theory?
A. Hiding the SSID turns off the beacons thus disabling passive scanning
B. Not responding to null SSIDs causes the EAP process to break down
C. These values must be present in order for intrusion detection systems to function
D. The SSID will still be present in probe request frames and can be seen with a protocol analyzer
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following best defines a "security risk"?
A. The likelihood of being targeted by a given attack, of an attack being successful, and general exposure
to a given threat.
B. The source and means of a particular type of attack.
C. The security flaws in a system that allow an attack to be successful.
D. Reduced Instruction Set Kernel.
Answer: A

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NO.12 When would the configuration of ADSP include the use of a RADIUS server?
A. When LDAP is not available
B. When sensor validation is required
C. When sensors require a VPN connection
D. When centralized authentication is required
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is the purpose of the Bonding command in the ADSP CLI.?
A. The Bonding command is used to link sensors to the correct container in the ADSP tree.
B. The Bonding command is used to enable the Primary and Secondary ADSP appliances to synchronize.
C. The Bonding command is used to enable both of the NIC's on ADSP's system board to act as one for
high availability.
D. The Bonding command is used to ensure that both the Primary and Secondary ADSP appliances are
configured to use the same IP address.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What security exists for the communication between sensors and the ADSP appliance?
A. EAP-TTLS and SSL
B. PEAP and SSL
C. PKI and SSL
D. EAP-TLS and SSL
Answer: C

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NO.15 A new coffee shop opens in your building offering hot-spot internet access. Several of your users are
connecting to the hot-spot while at their desks to bypass your firewall rules. What is the best thing that can
be done using the ADSP system to prevent this?
A. Integrate with the firewall using SNMP and import the same firewall rules.
B. Create a termination policy to prevent accidental associations of authorized AP's.
C. Create a termination policy to prevent authorized stations from using ad-hoc networks.
D. Create a termination policy to prevent accidental associations of your work stations to unauthorized
networks.
Answer: D

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