2013年7月31日星期三

Free download of the best AFP certification CTP exam training materials

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Exam Code: CTP

Exam Name: AFP (Certified Treasury Professional )

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NO.1 Which of the following is a characteristic of giro systems used in countries in Europe?
A. They operate through their postal systems.
B. They are primarily used for company-to-company payments.
C. They do not replace checks for the payment of bills.
D. They do not allow the use of direct debits and credits.
Answer: A

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NO.2 An instrument that gives the right to buy a stated number of shares of common stock at a specified price
is known as:
A. an equity warrant
B. a put option
C. a zero coupon bond
D. a subordinated debenture
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company is based in the United States and has an operating subsidiary in Germany. With a stable
U.S. dollar and a depreciating euro, the company's cash manager may elect to:
A. pool excess funds in the United States to offset German deficits.
B. implement a dollar-based multilateral netting system.
C. start leading receivables from the German subsidiary.
D. establish a multicurrency account in the United States.
Answer: C

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NO.4 The KEY decision in using CCD+ and CTX formats for B2B payments is:
A. whether to keep the payment and remittance information together or separate.
B. whether to use the Internet or an EDI spoke to transmit electronic payments.
C. whether to use an EDI or a UN/EDIFACT protocol to transfer the value electronically.
D. whether an evaluated receipts or paid-on-production technique is being used for the transfer.
Answer: A

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NO.5 An optimal concentration system minimizes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. administrative costs.
B. disbursement float.
C. excess balances.
D. transfer costs.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Netting is used by which of the following as a cross-border payment technique?
A. European giro providers
B. Foreign subsidiaries of a company
C. Counterparties in a letter of credit transaction
D. TARGET participants
Answer: B

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NO.7 Account analysis statements should be examined for which of the following reasons?
I. To verify volumes processed
II. To determine daily cash shortages
III. To verify the accuracy of bank service charges
IV. To ensure that company-initiated transactions have occurred
A. I and IV only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. II and IV only
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which one of the following ties a user ¯ s p ri va t e key t o a use¡ ¯s pu b l ic key
A. A digital signature
B. A digital certificate
C. A digitized signature
D. A digital token
Answer: B

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NO.9 A Chicago meat processor is concerned about the volatility of pork belly prices. Which of the following
derivative products would be used to fix these prices within a given range?
A. Collar
B. Swap
C. Cap
D. Spot purchase
Answer: A

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NO.10 A put option on a company's stock has an exercise price of $20. On the delivery date, the stock is
trading at $24 per share. What should the investor who has paid $2 for the option do?
A. Not exercise the option and lose $2.
B. Not exercise the option and lose $6.
C. Exercise the option and gain $2.
D. Exercise the option and gain $4.
Answer: A

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NO.11 A call option for a company has an exercise price of $50. The stock is currently trading at $60. At
maturity, what should an investor who paid $3 for the option do?
A. Exercise the option and gain $7.
B. Exercise the option and gain $10.
C. Not exercise the option and lose $3.
D. Not exercise the option and lose $13.
Answer: A

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NO.12 On the basis of the following exchange rates,
which of the following currency amounts has the greatest value in U.S. dollars?
A. C$750,000
B. ¡ê850,00
C. 900,000
D. £¤5,000,000
Answer: B

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NO.13 An arrangement in which a borrower makes periodic payments to a separate custodial account that is
used to repay debt is known as a:
A. sinking fund
B. balloon payment
C. mortgage
D. zero-coupon bond
Answer: A

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NO.14 In a typical swap transaction, two parties agree to exchange:
A. notional principal amounts.
B. amortization schedules.
C. maturity dates of obligations.
D. cash flows at future points in time.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following are important uses of variance analysis in comparing actual cash flows with
projected cash flows?
I. Identifying unanticipated changes in inventory
II. Enhancing short-term investment income
III. Validating a capital budget
IV. Identifying delays in accounts receivable collections
A. I and II only
B. I and IV only
C. II and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following instruments simplifies the paperwork connected with loans that have multiple
advance features?
A. Master note
B. Banker's acceptance
C. Indenture agreement
D. Note purchase agreement
Answer: A

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NO.17 In which of the following international cash management methods is title for goods transferred for
intercompany sales?
A. Pooling
B. Internal factoring
C. Multilateral netting
D. Re-invoicing
Answer: D

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NO.18 A bank issues a letter of credit (L/C) and receives a request for payment under the L/C. The buyer
notifies the issuing bank not to make payment because there is a dispute over the quality of the
merchandise. However, the documents received fully comply with the terms of the L/C. Which of the
following statements is true?
A. The buyer may immediately return the merchandise and cancel the L/C.
B. The bank may delay payment until reimbursed by the buyer.
C. The bank may delay payment, provided the seller is notified of the dispute within three business days.
D. The bank must make payment and is entitled to immediate reimbursement from the buyer.
Answer: D

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NO.19 A French company conducts business strictly within the euro zone (the EMU). Which type of risk is of
LEAST concern?
A. Terrorist
B. Regulatory
C. Payment
D. Currency
Answer: D

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NO.20 A company plans to issue additional equity within the next 12 months but needs to issue debt at a low
interest rate now. Which of the following instruments would BEST meet this objective?
A. Convertible bonds
B. Private placement issue
C. Preferred stock
D. Subordinated debentures
Answer: A

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PRINCE2 certification PRINCE2 exam questions and answers come out

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Exam Code: PRINCE2

Exam Name: PRINCE2 (PRINCE2 Foundation)

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NO.1 Which of these processes does NOT trigger the Planning (PL) process?
A. Starting Up a Project (SU)
B. Initiating a Project (IP)
C. Managing Stage Boundaries (SB)
D. Controlling a Stage (CS)
Answer: D

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NO.2 In what sequence would the (a) Project Initiation Document, (b) the Project Mandate and (c) the Project
Brief appear in a PRINCE2 project?
A. a, b, c
B. b, c, a
C. c, a, b
D. c, b, a
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which one of these is NOT a PRINCE2 Component?
A. Plans
B. Controls
C. Work Package
D. Configuration Management
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is FALSE? Project Managers using PRINCE2 are encouraged to...
A. Establish terms of reference as a prerequisite to the start of the project
B. Use a defined structure for delegation, authority and communication
C. Divide the project into manageable stages for more accurate planning
D. Provide brief reports to management at regular meetings
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which one of these statements describes the true purpose of Acceptance Criteria?
A. A justification for undertaking the project based on estimated costs and anticipated benefits.
B. A measurable definition of what must be done for the final product to be acceptable to the Customer.
C. To provide a full and firm foundation for the initiation of a project.
D. To triger 'Starting up a Project'.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Customer quality expectations should be discovered in the process
"Starting Up a Project"
B. Acompany'sQMSbecomespartofPRINCE2
C. PRINCE2 may form part of a company's QMS
D. The Stage Plan describes in detail how part of the Project Plan will be carried out
Answer: B

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NO.7 In "Closing a Project" (CP) the project files are archived. What is the explanation given for this?
A. To provide useful lessons to future projects
B. Never throw anything away.
C. This material may be needed by Programme Management
D. To permit any future audit of the project's actions
Answer: D

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NO.8 In a Product Breakdown Structure what category of product is a Highlight Report?
A. Quality
B. Specialist
C. Technical
D. Management
Answer: D

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NO.9 What other product is reviewed at the end of each stage apart from the Business Case and Project
Plan?
A. The Project Mandate
B. The Team Plan
C. The Risk Log
D. The Project Brief
Answer: C

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NO.10 What environment does PRINCE2 assume?
A. A fixed-PRICE contract
B. A Customer/Supplier environment
C. A specialist environment
D. A third-party environment
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of these items does NOT involve the Project Board?
A. Exception Assessment
B. Highlight Reports
C. Project Closure
D. Work Package Authorisation
Answer: D

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NO.12 Fill in the missing phrase from"a project is a management environment that is created for the purpose of
delivering one or more business products according to......"
A. TheCustomer'sNeds
B. An Agreed Contract
C. The Project Plan
D. A specified Business Case
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which statement is NOT a fundamental principle of" Closing a Project"? "A clear end to a project"
A. provides a useful opportunity to take stock of achievements
B. provides an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and objectives are identified
C. provides the opportunity to evaluate achievement of all the expected benefits
D. is always more successful than the natural tendency to drift into operational Management
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which product keeps track of Requests For Change.?
A. Request Log
B. Daily Log
C. Quality Log
D. Issue Log
Answer: D

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NO.15 If, after a Quality Review Follow-up Action, an error is still not resolved, what action should be taken?
A. An Exception Report is made
B. A Project Issue is raised
C. An Exception Memo is raised
D. The review is reconvened
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which feature of PRINCE2 tells the Project Manager where a product is, what its status is and who is
working on it?
A. Work Package
B. Product Description
C. Checkpoint Report
D. Configuration Management
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which document lists the major products of a plan with their key delivery dates?
A. Product Outline
B. Product Breakdown Structure
C. Checkpoint Report
D. Product Checklist
Answer: D

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NO.18 How often does PRINCE2 recommend that open Project Issues should be reviewed?
A. Weekly
B. At Exception Assessments
C. At Checkpoint Meetings
D. On a regular basis
Answer: D

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NO.19 What provision in Planning can be made for implementing Requests for Change?
A. Project and stage tolerances
B. Contingency plans
C. A Change Budget
D. Adding a contingency margin to estimates
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which part of a product lifespan is not part of a project life cycle in the eyes of PRINCE2?
A. The change-over to operational use of the product
B. Assessment of the value of the product after a period of use
C. The specification of the product
D. Finalisation of the business case
Answer: B

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NO.21 What other control is closely linked with configuration management?
A. Risk Management
B. Project Closure
C. Change Control
D. Project Initiation
Answer: C

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NO.22 What is the first job carried out on receipt of a new Project Issue?
A. Allocation of priority
B. Logging
C. Decision on what type of issue
D. Impact Analysis
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which of these statements is FALSE?
A. The Project Plan is an overview of the total project.
B. For each stage identified in the Project Plan, a Stage Plan is required.
C. An Exception Plan needs the approval of the next higher level of authority.
D. A Team Plan needs approval by the Project Board.
Answer: D

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NO.24 The configuration of the final deliverable of the project is
A. The sum total of its products
B. The interim products
C. Its product description
D. The single end-product
Answer: A

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NO.25 In PRINCE2 what product is used to define the information that justifies the setting up,
continuation or termination of the project?
A. Project Initiation Document
B. Business Case
C. End Stage Approval
D. Project Brief
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which of the following is NOT a PRINCE2 definition of a project?
A. Has an organisation structure
B. Produces defined and measurable business products
C. Uses a defined amount of resources
D. Uses a defined set of techniques
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which of these is NOT a valid Risk Management action?
A. Prevention
B. Denial
C. Reduction
D. Transference
Answer: B

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NO.28 What name is given to the permissible deviation from a plan allowed without immediate reporting to
the Project Board?
A. Allowance
B. Contingency
C. Concession
D. Tolerance
Answer: D

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NO.29 What is the more common term used in PRINCE2 for"deliverable"?
A. Item
B. Package
C. Product
D. Component
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which would require the production of an Exception Report?
A. When a Project Issue is received
B. When a Project Board member raises a complaint
C. When a Request For Change or Off-Specification has been received
D. When the current forecasts for the end of the stage deviate beyond the delegated tolerance bounds
Answer: D

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Latest HIPAA HIO-301 of exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: HIO-301

Exam Name: HIPAA (Certified HIPAA Security)

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NO.1 The Security Management Process standard includes this implementation specification: A. Risk
Reduction Policy
B. Audit Control
C. Risk Management
D. Detection Procedures
E. Training
Answer: C

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NO.2 Risk Management is a required implementation specification of this standard:
A. Security Incident Procedures
B. Technical Safeguards
C. Security Management Process
D. Information Access Management
E. Security Configuration Management
Answer: C

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NO.3 The objective of this standard is to perform a periodic review in response to environmental or
operational changes affecting the security of electronic protected health information.
A. Security Management Process
B. Integrity
C. Audit Controls
D. Evaluation
E. Transmission Security
Answer: D

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NO.4 This standard addresses restricting physical access to electronic PHI data through interface devices to
authorized users:
A. Facility Security Plan
B. Person or Entity Authentication
C. Workstation Security
D. Contingency Plan
E. Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.5 This is a self-contained program that uses security flaws such as buffer overflow to remotely
compromise a system and then replicate itself to that system. Identify this program (threat):
A. Trojan horse
B. Trapdoor
C. Master book sector virus
D. Cracker
E. Worm
Answer: E

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NO.6 An addressable Implementation Specification of Facility Access Controls is:
A. Unauthorized Access
B. Security Configurations
C. Accountability
D. Maintenance Records
E. Media Disposal
Answer: D

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NO.7 A required implementation specification of the contingency plan standard is:
A. Chain of Trust Agreement
B. Applications and Data Criticality Analysis
C. Security Training
D. Disaster Recovery Plan
E. Internal Audit
Answer: D

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NO.8 This standard requires that the entity establishes agreements with each organization with which it
exchanges data electronically, protecting the security of all such data.
A. Business Associate Contracts and Other Arrangements
B. Security Incident Procedures
C. Chain of Trust Contract
D. Trading Partner Agreement
E. Assigned security responsibility
Answer: A

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NO.9 This is a documented and routinely updated plan to create and maintain, for a specific period of time,
retrievable copies of information:
A. Disaster Recovery Plan
B. Data Backup Plan
C. Facility Backup Plan
D. Security Plan
Answer: B

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NO.10 Documented instructions for responding to and reporting security violations are referred to as:
A. Business Associate agreement
B. Security Incident Procedures
C. Non-repudiation
D. Sanction Policy
E. Risk Management
Answer: B

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NO.11 The Contingency Plan standard includes this addressable implementation specification:
A. Access Authorization Procedure
B. Testing and Revision Procedures
C. Virus Protection Plan Procedure
D. Sanctions Policy and Procedure
E. Authentication Procedures
Answer: B

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NO.12 This is a program that is a type of malicious code. It is unauthorized code that is contained within a
legitimate program and performs functions unknown to the user.
A. Trojan horse
B. Distributed Denial of Service
C. Stealth virus
D. Polymorphic virus
E. Denial of Service
Answer: A

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NO.13 The objective of this implementation specification is to conduct an accurate and thorough assessment
of the potential vulnerabilities to the confidentiality, integrity and availability of electronic protected health
information held by the covered entity.?
A. Risk Analysis
B. Network Management Policy
C. Security Policy
D. Access Controls
E. Audit Controls
Answer: A

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NO.14 This is a standard within Physical Safeguards
A. Contingency Operations
B. Workstation Use
C. Security Incident Management
D. Disaster Recovery E. Disposal
Answer: B

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NO.15 This HIPAA security category covers the use of locks, keys and administrative measures used to
control access to computer systems:
A. Technical Safeguards
B. Technical Services
C. Physical Security Policy
D. Administrative Safeguards
E. Physical Safeguards
Answer: E

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NO.16 ° E va l ua ti o ¡± is a st and ard w i thin
A. Administrative Safeguards
B. Physical Safeguards
C. Technical Safeguards
D. Privacy Safeguards
E. Electronic Signatures
Answer: A

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NO.17 The Security Incident Procedures standard includes this implementation specification:
A. Prevention Procedures
B. Alarm Device
C. Threat Analysis Procedures
D. Detection Procedures
E. Response and Reporting
Answer: E

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NO.18 Media Re-use is a required implementation specification associated with which security standard?
A. Facility Access Controls
B. Workstation Use
C. Workstation Security
D. Device and Media Controls
E. Access Control
Answer: D

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NO.19 The HIPAA security standards are designed to be comprehensive, technology neutral and:
A. Based on NIST specifications
B. Based on ISO specifications
C. Reasonable
D. Scalable
E. Implementable
Answer: D

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NO.20 This addressable implementation specification is about procedures for ° ove r see i n ¡± w orkfor c
members that work with electronic protected health information or in locations where it might be
accessed.
A. Risk Management
B. Sanction Policy
C. Authorization and/or Supervision
D. Unique User Identification
E. Integrity Controls
Answer: C

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Exam Code: AFE

Exam Name: IFPUG (Accredited Financial Examiner (AFE))

Exam Code: ABV

Exam Name: IFPUG (Accredited in Business Valuation (ABV))

Exam Code: CRCM

Exam Name: IFPUG (CERTIFIED REGULATORY COMPLIANCE MANAGER (CRCM))

Exam Code: I40-420

Exam Name: IFPUG (Certified Function Point Specialist )

Exam Code: 140-420

Exam Name: IFPUG (Certified Function Point Specialist )

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NO.1 The United State is by far the world leader in markets for both publicly traded securities and
closely held businesses and business interests. Two factors have combined to accelerate the
spread of U.S technology in financial appraisals and market throughout the world. Which of
the following is/are of those factors?
A. Rapidly increasing international flow of capital
B. Growing privatization of formerly socially owned businesses in almost every country of
the world.
C. Increased inflation in major parts of the world
D. Secondary market securities trading phenomenon
Answer: A, B

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NO.2 The definition of specific business interest can be broken down into two broad questions:
1.-Is the valuation to be a valuation of assets or a valuation of securities?
2)-In either case, exactly what assets or what securities are subject to valuation? By securities
in above context, we mean:
A. Ownership interests; such as marketable securities and commercial papers
B. Ownership interests; such as stock, dept and partnership interests
C. Partnership interests
D. Equity or invested capital
Answer: B

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5. Valuation of
must be specified. For example, the assignment might include
language such as” ...engaged to estimate the fair market value of the fixed assets, inventory,
and goodwill, on a going-concern basis of...”
A. Assets
B. Securities
C. Cooperatives
D. Partnerships
Answer: A

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NO.3 When specifying, who is to provide the valuation services, the important distinction is
whether the client is retaining the appraisal firm itself or the individual appraiser employed
by the firm. The common practice is:
A. To retain the individual appraiser rather than the firm
B. To retain the firm rather than individual appraiser, even though the expert witnesses testify
based upon their individual expertise and opinions
C. To retain the individual since the firm is responsible for completing the assignment
regardless of impairment the individual’s capability to perform the work
D. To retain firm as such practice also tends to provide discontinuity in retention of working
papers and related records, marking them accessible if they are needed months or even yearslater
as they frequently are
Answer: B

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NO.4 S corporations, limited liability corporations, limited liability partnerships, family limited
partnerships, professional corporations, real estate investment trust, investment companies
registered under the investment company act of 1940 and personal holding companies are the
examples of:
A. General and limited partnerships
B. Cooperatives
C. Entities’ structures giving rise to special legal or tax considerations (specified structure)
D. Companies following valuation standards
Answer: C

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2013年7月30日星期二

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Exam Code: 000-M77

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Information Mgmt Optim Technical Mastery Test v2)

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NO.1 Which statement is TRUE about the Restore Process?
A. The Insert Process is one method used to restore data.
B. Data cannot be restored to the original database if the data model has changed.
C. Data can only be restored from one Archive File per process.
D. Data must be loaded into a staging database before being restored to the original database.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What identifies the tables, relationship traversals, and selection criteria for the data to be archived?
A. Access Definition
B. Archive File
C. Browse Utility
D. Storage Profile
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which file records whether the Delete Process was successful for each row?
A. Index File
B. Control File
C. Archive File
D. Extract File
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is NOT a function of the Browse Utility?
A. to view related data by joining tables
B. to inspect archived data before making deletions
C. to define the tables and selection criteria for an Access Definition
D. to determine if an Archive File is appropriate for the Restore Process
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which feature should one use to select specific rows from a Start Table to begin an Extract?
A. Selection criteria
B. SQL WHERE
C. Point and Shoot
D. Row List Definitions
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M66

Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Information Server Technical Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 Which tool would you recommend to get an accurate view of the quality of data stored in a DB2 or an
Oracle table, and be able to determine easily the frequency distribution and the format of that data?
A. Use the native DBMS catalog tables, and retrieve the detailed statistics
B. InfoSphere Metadata Workbench
C. InfoSphere Information Analyzer
D. InfoSphere FastTrack
Answer: C

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NO.2 In which scenario are the MetaBrokers and Bridges not needed?
A. When you are using the Import/Export Manager utility
B. When you export a business glossary model fromInfoSphere Data Architect to the Metadata Server
C. When you export a physical model fromInfoSphere Data Architect to the Metadata Server
D. When you use Metadata Workbench to see the data and job lineage
Answer: D

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NO.3 In DataStage, Table Definitions are imported through ______________________?
A. DataStage Administrator.
B. Information Server Web Console.
C. DataStage Designer.
D. DataStage Director.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which one of the following is a data quality challenge that can be addressed by QualityStage?
A. Too many data values for a single domain.
B. Too many records containing the default value for a single domain.
C. Data values appear on report in different format than stored.
D. Buried information.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The Informational Content of a QualityStage Match phase report measures ______________
A. the severity of false positives and false negatives.
B. the significance of discriminating value and frequency.
C. the degree of importance of a particular data field.
D. the confidence of a match.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M39

Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere MQ Technical Sales Mastery Test v2 )

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NO.1 What is required for WebSphere MQ v7 to support publish-subscribe messaging?
A. A queue manager
B. A publish-subscribe broker that has the same name as the queue manager
C. A separate broker process that is associated with each queue manager
D. ASupportPac is available to provide publish-subscribe functionality
Answer: A

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NO.2 In order to write messages to a queue what operation must be done first?
A. Connect to the queue
B. Verify queue is empty
C. Set the queue to read/write mode
D. Open the queue
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the name of the MQMD field that a message producer uses to ensure that no consumers
receive a message after a message has been on a destination queue for a specified period of time?
A. Timeout
B. Expiry
C. TimeToLive
D. MaxAge
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which topic string is NOT valid for a subscribing application to get all messages about fresh fruit if a
topic tree exists with the following topic hierarchy: deli/fresh; deli/fresh/fruit; deli/tinned/nuts;
deli/tinned/meat?
A. deli
B. deli/+/fruit
C. deli/fresh/fruit
D. deli/#
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT a channel connection enhancement new in WebSphere MQ v7?
A. MQI channel connections can be shared
B. SSL encryption for each MQI Channel connection
C. Read-ahead for non-persistent messages
D. Automatic client reconnection
Answer: B

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