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2014年4月28日星期一

Juniper JN0-360 training and testing

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Exam Code: JN0-360
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-SP))
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Total Q&A: 252 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 In which environment would you run BGP?
A. a company spread across multiple floors of a building
B. a company with a single office
C. a home network
D. the public Internet
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which Junos platform supports provider bridging?
A. T Series devices
B. SRX Series devices
C. MX Series devices
D. MAG Series devices
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which label operation is performed by an MPLS transit router?
A. inject
B. pop
C. push
D. swap
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about MPLS VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. With Layer 3 VPNs, the provider's routers participate in the customer's Layer 3 routing.
B. MPLS VPNs are designed to run over private networks rather than the public Internet.
C. With Layer 2 VPNs, the provider does not participate in the routing of the customer's private IP
traffic.
D. MPLS VPN tunnels are always encrypted.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 What are Martian addresses on a Junos device?
A. IP addresses that are reserved for use only with MPLS VPNs.
B. IP addresses that are never installed in the routing table.
C. IP addresses that are reserved for use only with GRE tunnels.
D. IP addresses specifically used for out-of-band management.
Answer: A

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7. Which statement correctly describes the difference between a generated and an aggregate
route?
A. An aggregate route can be a supernet whereas generated routes are classful.
B. A generated route has a forwarding next hop that is inherited from a contributing route.
C. An aggregate route has a forwarding next hop that is inherited from a contributing route.
D. Only aggregate routes can be re-advertised through BGP using a policy.
Answer: B

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8. Which statement is true regarding the default master routing instance?
A. All IPv4 routes in the master routing instance are shared with user-defined routing instances.
B. Interface routes in the master routing instance are shared with user-defined routing instances.
C. Routes in the master routing instance are not shared with user-defined routing instances.
D. All routes in the master routing instance are shared with user-defined routing instances.
Answer: C

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9. Which routing table contains the route information for the user-defined routing instance
called Candidate1?
A. inet.Candidate1.0
B. Candidate1.inet.0
C. inet.0
D. Candidate1-inet.0
Answer: B

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10. Which two routing-instance types are used for non-VPN-related applications? (Choose two.)
A. virtual-router
B. vrf
C. forwarding
D. vpls
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 For a network running single-area OSPF, how would you decrease the size of the link-state
database (LSDB)?
A. Implement RIP as an overlay protocol on all devices.
B. Add more devices to the OSPF network to help with LSDB processing.
C. Reduce the frequency of hello timers throughout the network.
D. Implement OSPF areas.
Answer: B

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2013年7月1日星期一

Free download Juniper certification JN0-360 exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: JN0-360

Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-SP))

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NO.1 You have been asked to configure an IPv6 address for a group of interfaces that could belong on
different routers. If a packet is sent to that address, it should be received by all routers in the group.
Which address type would be suited for these requirements?
A.Unicast
B.Multicast
C.Anycast
D.Broadcast
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are two valid actions that can be applied to a frame by a Layer 2 firewall filter?
(Choose two)
A.Log
B.loss-priority
C.sample
D.count
Answer: BD

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NO.3 You must configure an OSPF area that does not accept type 3 link-state advertisements (LSAs) from
area 0 (other than the default route) You have configured your area to be stub, but you still see type 3
LSAs.
What will account for this behavior?
A.You should have configured your area as totally stubby
B.You should have used a not-so-stubby-area
C.You are experiencing a routing loop
D.You have exported routes into OSPF
Answer: A

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NO.4 Router A is an OSPF router connected to both Area 0 and Area 1 Area 1 has been configured as a stub
area Which two LSA types does Router A suppress from Area 1 ?
A.Router LSA
B.External LSA
C.Summary LSA
D.ASBR Summary LSA
Answer: B D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button
Based on the illustration of the VPLS topology shown in the exhibit, which statement is true?
A.PE-C must have a spanning-tree protocol enabled
B.CE-C must have BGP enabled
C.Traffic forwarded from PE-C to PE-A is forwarded on to PE-B
D.Traffic forwarded from PE-C to PE-A is not forwarded on to PE-B
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which BGP state denotes a fully operational session?
A.Established
B.Active
C.Operational
D.Connect
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the function of the hop limit field in the IPv6 header?
A.It limits the diameter of the network to 20 hops
B.It sets the number of hops in the network to be equal to the MPLS header time-to-live (TTL)
C.It replaces the time-to-live (TTL) field in IPv4
D.It represents future extensibility to the protocol
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two values displayed in the output from the show spanning-tree MSTP configuration command
must match on all switches participating in the same MSTP region? (Choose two)
A.root bridge identifier
B.authentication checksum
C.context identifier
D.configuration digest
Answer: CD

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NO.9 You have recently implemented a graceful Routing-Engine switchover (GRES) and want to further
reduce down time if a Routing Engine (RE) failure occurs.
Which two features can be configured on this device to reduce its downtime in this situation? (Choose
two)
A.VRRP
B.GR
C.BFD
D.NSR
Answer: B D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button
In the exhibit, OSPF routers R1, R2, R3, and R4 come up, in order, at 1-minute intervals
Which router will be the designated router?.
A.R1
B.R2
C.R3
D.R4
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which Junos operational mode command is used to verify that load balancing is working as expected?
A.show route all
B.show route extensive
C.show route balancing
D.show route forwarding-table
Answer: D

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NO.12 You are logged into a router and have navigated to the (edit routing-options] level of the hierarchy. You
have been asked to create a static route that will use 10.10.10.1 as its primary next-hop and 10.10.10.5
as its secondary next-hop.
Which command correctly configures this scenario?
A.set static route 8/8 10.10.10.1 qualified-next-hop 10.10.10.5 pref 10
B.set static route 8/8 next-hop 10.10.10.1 secondary-next-hop 10.10.10.5 preference 10
C.set static route 8/8 next-hop 10.10.10.1 qualified-next-hop 10.10.10.5 preference 10
D.set static route 8/8 next-hop [10.10.10.1 10.10.10.5] pref 10
Answer: C

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button
You work for the regional Internet service provider shown in the exhibit You have a partial BGP table and
are receiving a 10 100/16 route from your upstream ISP You have been asked to configure a default route
that can be sent to your downstream customer This route should forward customer traffic toward your
upstream Tier 11SP as long as the 10.100/16 route is present.
What would accomplish this goal?
A.Create and announce an aggregate default route
B.Create and announce a static default route with a next-hop of discard
C.Create and announce a static default route with a next-hop of reject
D.Create and announce a generated default route
E.Create an advertise-map with exist-map
Answer: E

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NO.14 Which two statements describe differences between IPv4 and IPv6.? (Choose two)
A.IPsec is built into IPv6
B.IPv6 uses a 32-bit (4-byte) address and can support up to 4,294,967,296 addresses
C.IPv4 supports extension headers whereas IPv6 options are integrated into the base
D.IPv6 eliminates the need for NAT
Answer: AD

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NO.15 You have configured an IP-IP tunnel between Router A and Router B
Which Junos operational mode command is used to verify that the tunnel interface is up and operational?
A.show chassis tunnel status
B.show tunnel interface
C.show interfaces terse
D.show interfaces tunnel
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which role does the router ID (RID) have in the BGP route selection process?
A.The router ID is evaluated immediately after MED to determine route preference
B.The router ID is evaluated last in the route selection process
C.The router ID is evaluated after the cluster length and a lower router ID is chosen
D.The router ID is evaluated after analyzing the IGP metric cost
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which IS-IS packet is used to determine the level of an IS-IS neighbor?
A.IIH
B.LSP
C.PSNP
D.CSNP
Answer: A

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NO.18 You are logged into a router and have navigated to the [edit routing-options] level of the hierarchy. You
have been asked to create a static route that will use 43 18 7 1 as its primary next-hop and 76 1310 2 as
its secondary next-hop.
Which command correctly configures this setup?
A.set static route 0/0 76.13.10.2 qualified-next-hop 43.18.7.1 pref 10
B.set static route 0/0 next-hop 43.18.7.1 secondary-next-hop 76.13.10.2 preference 10
C.set static route 0/0 next-hop [76.13.10.2 10.10.10.5] pref 10
D.set static route 0/0 next-hop 43.18.7.1 qualified-next-hop 76.13.10.2 preference 10
Answer: D

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button
Referring to the network illustrated in the exhibit, how does router A reach destinations in area 49.2222?
A.Router A will use the routes from area 49.2222; it learns from router B
B.Router A will see the attached bit from router B and create a default route
C.Router A must have a default route manually configured
D.Router A will receive a default route in the IS-IS update from router B
Answer: B

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NO.20 You have been asked to define a default gateway for traffic leaving a router. This route should use
interface so-0/0/0 as its next-hop.Which type of route would be suited for this scenario?
A.a static route
B.a generated route
C.a martian route
D.an aggregate route
Answer: A

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